Q.1 The Baby-friendly Hospital Initiative (BFHI) was launched jointly by:

  1.  WHO and Red Cross
  2. WHO and FAO
  3. UNICEF and WHO
  4.  UNICEF and FAO

Ans-3 UNICEF and WHO

  • Rational -The Baby-friendly Hospital Initiative (BFHI) was launched by WHO and UNICEF in 1991, following the Innocenti Declaration of 1990.

Q.2 Which of the following conditions can result in a hairy patch on the back of children?

  1. Epilepsy
  2. Hydrocephalus
  3. Spina bifida occulta
  4. Ricket

Ans-Spina bifida occulta

  • Rational-Spina Bifida Occulta is the mildest type of spina bifida. It is sometimes called “hidden” spina bifida. With it, there is a small gap in the spine, but no opening or sac on the back. The spinal cord and the nerves usually are normal. Many times, Spina Bifida Occulta is not discovered until late childhood or adulthood.

Q.3 Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestations of Trisomy 21?

  1. Flat nasal bridge
  2. Protruding tongue
  3. Long hands and fingers
  4. Small nose

Ans-3  Long hands and fingers

Q.4 Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

  1. Inattention
  2. Impulsivity
  3. Difficulty in eating
  4. Overactivity

Ans. 3 Difficulty in eating

Q.5 The most common type of leukaemia seen in children is:

  1. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia (ALL)
  2. Chronic Lymphoid Leukaemia (CHL)
  3. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)
  4. Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)

Ans-1 Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia (ALL)

  • Rational-Leukaemia is the most common type of cancer affecting children. And acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is the most common type of leukaemia diagnosed in children. ALL is most common in young children aged 0 - 4. Around  children are diagnosed with ALL in the UK each year.

Q.6 Which of the following is NOT a complication of measles?

  1.  Laryngitis
  2. Conjunctivitis
  3. Atrial Septal Defect
  4. Encephalitis

Ans- Atrial Septal Defect

Q.7 Which of the following is the ideal age for closure of the anterior fontanel of a child?

  1.  18 to 24 months
  2.  6 to 8 months
  3.  6 to 8 weeks
  4. 18 to 24 weeks

Ans-18 to 24 months

  • Rational-The anterior fontanel closes at 18 months of age on the average but it can close normally as early as 9 months. If fontanels close too early or too late, that may be a sign of a problem.

Q.8 An injury to the upper brachial plexus results in:

  1. Facial palsy
  2. Phrenic nerve palsy
  3.  Klimke's palsy
  4.  Erb's palsy

Ans- Erb's palsy

  • Rational-Erb's palsy is a paralysis of the arm caused by injury to the upper group of the arm's main nerves, specifically the severing of the upper trunk C5–C6 nerves. These form part of the brachial plexus , comprising the ventral rami of spinal nerves C5–C8 and thoracic nerve T1.

Q.9 Which of the following is NOT a part of the Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

  1.  Patent Ductus Arteriosus
  2. Right ventricular hypertrophy
  3.  Over-riding of Aorta
  4.  Pulmonary stenosis

Ans -Patent Ductus Arteriosus

Q.10 Which of the following is the most common cause of ophthalmic neonatorum?

  1.  Candida albicans
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
  3.  Neisseria gonorrhoea
  4. Streptococcus

Ans- Neisseria gonorrhoea

  • Rational-Ophthalmia neonatorum (ON) refers to any conjunctivitis occurring in the first 28 days of life. Originally, the term neonatal ophthalmia referred to conjunctivitis in the newborn caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, but now the term is used for any conjunctivitis in this age group, irrespective of cause. It is most commonly infective in origin.

Q.11 The manoeuver commonly used to manage shoulder dystocia is:

  1.  Rossete Manoeuver
  2.  MacRobert's Manoeuver
  3.  Jeff Marshal Manoeuver
  4.  McMilan Manoeuver

Ans -MacRobert's Manoeuver

  • Rational-The McRoberts maneuver is an obstetrical maneuver used to assist in childbirth. It is named after William A. McRoberts, Jr. It is employed in case of shoulder dystocia during childbirth and involves hyperflexing the mother's legs tightly to her abdomen.

Q.12 The first perception of active foetal movement felt by the mother during pregnancy is known as:

  1. Engagement
  2. Hastening
  3. Quickening
  4. Lightening


  • Rational-The first perceptible movement of the fetus in the uterus, appearing usually in the sixteenth to eighteenth week of pregnancy.

Q.13 Which of the following is NOT a feature of HELLP syndrome?

  1. Raised liver enzymes
  2. Eosinophilia
  3. Thrombocytopenia
  4. Haemolytic anaemia


Q.14 The normal APGAR score of a new born is:

  1. 7 and above
  2.  3 to 4
  3.  4 to 6
  4. below 3 

Ans -7 and above

  • Rational-A score of 7 to 10 is considered normal for both the one-minute and five-minute Apgar tests. A score in this range usually means that your baby's in good shape and doesn't need more than routine post-delivery care. If you have any questions or are worried, ask the doctor about your baby's Apgar score.

Q.15 Postpartum haemorrhage is the condition in which there is loss of more than ______ ml vaginal blood.

  1. 100
  2.  50
  3.  10
  4. 500


  • Rational-Postpartum bleeding or postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is often defined as the loss of more than 500 ml or 1,000 ml of blood within the first 24 hours following childbirth. Some have added the requirement that there also be signs or symptoms of low blood volume for the condition to exist.

Q.16 The correct sequence of development of puberty in girls is:

  1.  Menarche, Pubarche, Thelarche
  2. Thelarche, Pubarche, Menarche
  3. Thelarche, Menarche, Pubarche
  4. Pubarche, Menarche, Thelarche

Ans-Thelarche, Pubarche, Menarche

Q.17 During the active phase of labour, the cervical dilatation per hour in primigravidas is approximately:

  1. 1.2 cm
  2. 1.9 cm
  3. 2.3 cm
  4.  2.5 cm

Ans -1.2 cm

  • Rational-The average rate of dilatation of the cervix during the active phase is 1.5 cm per hour in multigravidas and 1.2 cm in primigravidas. Therefore, the lower limit of the normal rate of cervical dilatation is 1 cm per hour. The cervix should dilate at a rate of at least 1 cm per hour in the active phase of labour. 

Q.18 Of the 6-7 million oocytes available, how many are released during ovulation?

  1.  3000 to 4000
  2.  400 to 500
  3.  2000 to 3000
  4.  100 to 200

Ans-2. 400 to 500

Q.19 The onset of menstruation is called:

  1. Menopause
  2. Menarche
  3.  Andropause
  4. Ovarian cycle

Rational-The beginning of the menstrual function; especially the first menstrual period of an individual.

Q.20 Which of the following is the most important tumour marker to diagnose carcinoma of ovary?

  1.  Serum human chorionic gonadotropin
  2.  CA 125
  3.  Human placental lactogen
  4.  Serum alpha fetoprotein

Ans-CA 125

  • Rational-A CA-125 blood test may be used to monitor ovarian cancer during and after treatment. In some cases, it might be used to check for early signs of ovarian cancer in women who are at a high risk for the disease. However, a CA-125 blood test isn’t accurate enough to screen for ovarian cancer in all women because many different conditions can cause abnormal CA-125 levels.

Q.21 Peg cells are seen in the:

  1. Intestine
  2.  Fallopian tubes
  3. Stomach
  4. Vagina

Ans-Fallopian tubes

Q.22 The outer most membrane of placenta is called:

  1. Yolk sac
  2. Chorion
  3.  Amnion
  4.  Meningitis


  • Rational-Chorion is the outer fetal membrane in placental mammals. Basically, chorion develops from an outer fold on the surface of the yolk sac, occurring outside of the zona pellucida. Moreover, it contains two layers: outer trophoblast and inner somatic mesoderm. The amnion is in contact with the latter.

Q.23 Which of the following indicates relationship of long axis of the foetus to that of mother?

  1. Foetal lie
  2. Foetal presentation
  3.  Foetal attitude
  4. Foetal position

Ans- Foetal lie

  • Rational-Fetal Lie Fetal lie is the relationship of the fetus to the long axis of the mother... NORMAL lie- longitudinal lie- fetus' long axis is in line with the mother's uterus with its head down ABNORMAL lie- is referred to a breech, where the buttocks are in positioned in uterus as to where the head should normally. 

Q.24 What is the ideal average newborn’s head circumference at birth?

  1.  75 cm
  2.  35 cm
  3.  55 cm
  4. 15 cm

Ans - 35 cm

  • Rational-An average newborn will have a head circumference of about 13 ¾ inches (34.9 cm) at birth, assuming the baby was full-term. By one month, that has grown to 15 inches (38.1 cm). Baby head circumference in boys might be slightly larger than in girls, but it is still rather close, within one centimeter.

Q.25 Post-term pregnancy is a pregnancy which continues beyond:

  1. 294 days
  2.  250 days
  3.  200 days
  4. 170 days

Ans -294 days

  • Rational-A pregnancy that lasts more than 42 weeks (294 days since the first day of the last menstrual period) is considered post-term. The vast majority of women deliver between 37 and 42 weeks of pregnancy.

Q.26 Oxygenated blood from placenta returns to the foetus via the ______.

  1. Superior vena cava
  2.  Inferior vena cava
  3.  Umbilical vein
  4.  Ductus arteriosus

Ans-Umbilical vein

  • Rational-The oxygen rich blood then returns to the fetus via the third vessel in the umbilical cord (umbilical vein). The oxygen rich blood that enters the fetus passes through the fetal liver and enters the right side of the heart.

Q.27 A normal umbilical cord contains:

  1. one artery and five veins
  2. two arteries and one vein
  3. five arteries and two veins
  4.  two arteries and ten veins

Ans-two arteries and one vein

  • Rational-The normal umbilical cord contains 2 arteries and 1 vein. The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the left portal vein in the fetal liver.

Q.28 Which one of the following is seen in preeclampsia?

  1. Facial hair
  2.  Hypotension
  3.  Weight loss
  4.  Proteinuria


  • Rational-Pre-eclampsia is diagnosed by the presence of hypertension and proteinuria. Protein in the urine can be detected by a urine dipstick, and then quantified through a 24-hour urinary collection . Other investigations are used to monitor for signs of organ dysfunction .

Q.29 The early puerperium extends:

  1.  until twelve weeks of postpartum
  2. up to first year of delivery
  3.  until the thirteen weeks of postpartum
  4. until the first week of postpartum

Ans-until the first week of postpartum

Q.30 Which of the following hormones is increased in Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome?

  1. 17-OH progesterone
  2.  Luteinising Hormone (LH)
  3.  Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
  4.  Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

Ans -Luteinising Hormone (LH)

Q.31 The approximate average weight of placenta at birth is:

  1.  300 g
  2. 400 g
  3.  508 g
  4.  600 g

Ans-508 g

Q.32 The darkening of the skin over the forehead, bridge of nose or cheekbones during pregnancy is called:

  1. Chloasma
  2. Chadwick's sign
  3. Hegar's sign
  4. Linea nigrea

Ans -Chloasma

  •  Rational-Chloasma During Pregnancy Overview. Chloasma, also called melasma or the “mask of pregnancy,” is a common condition in pregnant women. Causes of Chloasma. Chloasma can occur at any time in life to both men and women. However, women are far more likely Tips for Minimizing Chloasma.

Q.33 The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:

  1. ampullary region in the fallopian tube
  2. Cervix
  3. Abdomen
  4. Ovary

Ans -ampullary region in the fallopian tube

  • Rational-The most common site for an ectopic pregnancy is the fallopian tube. In rare cases, this can occur in the ovary, abdomen, or cervix. An ectopic pregnancy can occur even if you use birth control. If the area around the abnormal pregnancy ruptures and bleeds, symptoms may get worse. 

Q.34 Inflammation of the fallopian tube is called:

  1. Endometritis
  2. Vaginitis
  3. Salpingitis
  4. Cervicitis


  • Rational-Salpingitis is inflammation of the fallopian tubes, caused by bacterial infection. Common causes of salpingitis include sexually transmitted diseases such as gonorrhoea and chlamydia. Salpingitis is a common cause of female infertility because it can damage the fallopian tube. Treatment options include antibiotics.

Q.35 The uterine fibroid is associated with:

  1. Endometriosis
  2. Amenorrhoea
  3. Ovarian cancer
  4. PID

Q.36 What is the correct sequence of mitosis?

  1. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
  2. Anaphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase
  3. Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
  4. Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase

Ans  Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

  • Rational-Mitosis consists of four basic phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Some textbooks list five, breaking prophase into an early phase (called prophase) and a late phase (called prometaphase).

Q.37 The most common cause of non-engagement at term in primigravida is:

  1. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)
  2. Breech presentation
  3. Hydramnios
  4. Brow presentation

Ans-Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)

  • Rational-Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) occurs when a baby’s head or body is too large to fit through the mother’s pelvis. It is believed that true CPD is rare, but many cases of “failure to progress” during labor are given a diagnosis of CPD.

Q.38 The ovarian cycle is initiated by:

  1. Progesterone
  2. Follicle stimulating hormone
  3. Endorphins
  4. OeEstrogen

Ans -Follicle stimulating hormone

Q.39 At about ______ of gestation, the height of the uterus is at the level of umbilicus.

  1. 6 - 8 weeks
  2. 3 - 5 weeks
  3. 20 - 22 weeks
  4. 10 - 12 weeks

Ans-20 - 22 weeks

Q. 40 Which of the following is the common site of fertilization?

  1. Interstitial
  2. Isthmic
  3. Ampulla
  4. Infundibulum


  • Rational-From there there are three named parts of the Fallopian tube; the isthmus, the ampulla, and the infundibulum. The isthmus sits next to the opening of the Fallopian tube into the uterus. It connects ampulla (Latin: flask), which curves over the ovary and is the most common site of human fertilization.

Q. 41 The settling of foetal head into the brim of the pelvis is called:

  1. Crowning of head
  2. Lightening 
  3. Engagement
  4. Descent

Ans Lightening

  • Rational-The descent of the foetus, resulting in decreased fundal height, an event that occurs about 2 weeks before labour, caused by physiologic changes of the uterus; lightening is characterised by an abrupt sensation of ‘lightness’ or relief from the weightiness felt by the mother which corresponds to the drop of the baby’s head into the pelvis.

Q.42 Urine formation usually begins towards the end of the ______ and continues throughout foetal life.

  1. 3-5 weeks
  2.  2-3 weeks
  3.  21-22 weeks
  4. 11-12 weeks

Ans-11-12 weeks

Q. 43 The suture that separates the parietal bone from the tabular portion of the occipital bone is called:

  1. Lambdoidal suture
  2. Frontal suture
  3. Sagittal suture
  4. Coronal suture 

Ans- Lambdoidal suture

  • Rational-Lambdoidal suture definition, the lambda-shaped seam or line of joining between the occipital and two parietal bones at the back part of the skull.

Q. 44 The shape of the brim in anthropoid pelvis is:

  1.  triangular with base towards sacrum
  2.  square
  3.  well-rounded
  4.  oval


  • Rational-Pelvic brim is an anteroposterior ellipse, Gynecoid pelvis turned 90 degrees, Narrow ischial spines. Much more common in black women The anthropoid pelvis is very long and almost “ovoid” in shape.

Q. 45 The length of the fallopian tube ranges from:

  1. 22-27 cm
  2. 7-12 cm
  3. 28-31 cm
  4. 2-7 cm

Ans -7-12 cm

  • Rational-The paired fallopian tubes extend laterally from the cornua of the uterus on each side and end near the ovaries. They range in length from 10-14 cm and are about 1 cm in external diameter, connecting the peritoneal space to the endometrial cavity.

Q. 46 The first stage of labour is characterised by:

  1.  crowning of the head
  2.  expulsion of the foetus till the placenta
  3. dilatation of cervix
  4. delivery of the placenta

Ans -dilatation of cervix

  • Rational-The First Stage The first stage of labor is characterized by dilatation of the cervix with descent of the fetal head into the pelvis. The first stage of labor is divided into a latent phase (early labor) and an active phase (active labor).

Q. 47 The most common genital prolapse is:

  1. Rectocoele
  2. Cystocoele
  3.  Procidentia
  4.  Enterocoele

Ans -Cystocoele

  • Rational-Cystocele- This is the most common form of pelvic organ prolapse and is when the bladder drops down and bulges into the vagina.

Q. 48 The graphical record of maternal and foetal data against time during labour on a single sheet of paper is called:

  1. Ultrasonogram
  2. Tocogram
  3.  Cardiotocogram
  4.  Partogram

Ans -Partogram

  • Rational-A partogram or partograph is a composite graphical record of key data (maternal and fetal) during labour entered against time on a single sheet of paper. Relevant measurements might include statistics such as cervical dilation, fetal heart rate, duration of labour and vital signs.

Q. 49 The condition where the uterus turns inside out is called:

  1. Uterine Inversion
  2. Prolapse
  3. Anteversion
  4. Retroversion

Ans - Uterine Inversion

  • Rational-Uterine inversion is a rare condition in which the uterus is essentially turned inside out. There are two types: "puerperal" (within six weeks of childbirth) and "non-puerperal". The reason for uterine inversion is unclear.

Q. 50 Ovulation in a female with a 36 days cycle occurs between:

  1. 30th – 34th day
  2. 14th – 18th day
  3. 8th – 12th day
  4. 20th – 24th day

Ans -20th – 24th day