Q.1 A person suffering from ______, a severe anxiety disorder, is able to speak freely with certain
people only and is not able to speak with others, especially with certain social groups such
as classmates at school.

  1.  Mutism
  2. Aphasia
  3. Selective mutism
  4. Epilepsy

Ans-Selective mutism

  • Rational-Selective mutism (SM), also known as situational mutism, is an anxiety disorder in which a person normally capable of speech cannot speak in specific situations or to specific people if triggered. Selective mutism usually co-exists with social anxiety disorder.

Q.2 The disulphiram therapy is indicated in-

  1.  Acute intoxication
  2. Cannabis dependence
  3.  Anxiety disorder
  4.  Chronic alcoholism

Ans-Chronic alcoholism

  • Rational-Disulfiram (sold under the trade name Antabuse) is a drug used to support the treatment of chronic alcoholism by producing an acute sensitivity to ethanol (drinking alcohol). Disulfiram works by inhibiting the enzyme acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, causing many of the effects of a hangover to be felt immediately following alcohol consumption. Disulfiram plus alcohol, even small amounts, produce flushing, throbbing in head and neck, throbbing headache, respiratory difficulty, nausea, copious vomiting, sweating, thirst, chest pain, palpitation, dyspnea, hyperventilation, fast heart rate, low blood pressure, fainting, marked uneasiness, weakness, vertigo, blurred vision, and confusion. In severe reactions there may be respiratory depression, cardiovascular collapse, abnormal heart rhythms, heart attack, acute congestive heart failure, unconsciousness, convulsions, and death.

Q.3 The La Belle indifference is related to-

  1. Conversion reaction
  2. Obsession compulsions disorder
  3. Anxiety disorder
  4. Phobic anxiety

Ans-Conversion reaction

  • Rational-la belle indifference (uncountable) (psychiatry) A condition in which the person is unconcerned with symptoms caused by a conversion disorder. A naive, inappropriate lack of emotion or concern for the perceptions by others of one's disability, usually seen in persons with conversion disorder.

Q.4 A patient admitted in the psychiatric ward refused to eat her lunch stating that the food is
poisoned. This kind of response is an example of-

  1.  Hallucination
  2.  Sympathy
  3.  Illusions
  4.  Delusions

Ans- Delusions

Q.5 False sensory perception without real external stimulus is known as-

  1. Hallucination
  2. Illusions
  3. Delusions
  4. Thought insertion


  • Rational-Hallucination Perception in the absence of external stimulation that has the qualities of real perception.

Q.6 Which one of the following is derived from the plant 'Cannabis Sativa'?

  1.  Cocaine
  2.  Morphine
  3.  Ganja
  4.  Opium


  • Rational-Cannabis sativa is an annual herbaceous flowering plant indigenous to eastern Asia but now of cosmopolitan distribution due to widespread cultivation.It has been cultivated throughout recorded history, used as a source of industrial fiber, seed oil, food, recreation, religious and spiritual moods and medicine. Each part of the plant is harvested differently, depending on the purpose of its use.

Q.7 Which of the following is NOT a sign/symptom of the obsessive-compulsive disorder?

  1. No fear of self-harm
  2. Fear of germs or dirt
  3. Obsessive thoughts
  4. Compulsive acts

Ans-No fear of self-harm

Q.8 According to Erikson's eight stages of development, initiative vs. guilt takes place at-

  1.  20 – 25 years
  2.  10 – 15 years
  3.  13 – 19 years
  4.  3 – 5 years

Ans- 3 – 5 years

  • Rational-Initiative versus guilt is the third stage of Erik Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development. This stage occurs during the preschool years, between the ages of 3 and 5. During the initiative versus guilt stage, children begin to assert their power and control over the world through directing play and other social interaction.

Q.9 Which of the following is expected in a patient who is diagnosed with an organic mental

  1. Intact memory
  2. Appropriate behaviour
  3. Disorganisation of thoughts
  4. Orientation to person, place and time

Ans-Disorganisation of thoughts

Q 10 The act of purging or purification of emotions is called-

  1.  Compulsion
  2.  Catharsis
  3.  Cataplexy
  4.  Confabulation

Ans- Catharsis

  • Rational-Catharsis definition is - purification or purgation of the emotions (such as pity and fear) primarily through art. How to use catharsis in a sentence. Word History of catharsis and cathartic.

Q.11 The presence of stones in the urinary tract is called-

  1.  Kideneylithiasis
  2. Stonelithiasis
  3. Urolithiasis
  4. Cholelithiasis


  • Rational-Urolithiasis is a medical term referring to the presence of stones or crystals in an animal's urinary tract. When the stones are made up of uric acid, they are called urate stones. These stones can also be found in the kidneys and in the tubes connecting the kidneys to the animal's bladder (ureters). 

Q.12 The most common lung cancer seen in non-smokers is-

  1.  small cell carcinoma
  2. adenocarcinoma
  3.  large cell carcinoma
  4.  squamous cell carcinoma


  • Rational-Adenocarcinomas are the most common type of NSCLC in the U.S. and comprise up to 40% of lung cancer cases. While adenocarcinomas are associated with smoking like other lung cancers.

Q.13 The antidote of warfarin is-

  1.  Protamine sulphate
  2. Vitamin K
  3. Heparin
  4. Acetyl cysteine

Ans-Vitamin K

  • Rational-Warfarin works by competing with Vitamin K, which decreases the body’s ability to form blood clots. As a result, warfarin is called a Vitamin K antagonist.

Q.14 Painful swallowing is known as-

  1.  dysphasia
  2. odynophagia
  3. ataxia
  4. dyspepsia


  • Rational-“Odynophagia” is the medical term for painful swallowing. Pain can be felt in your mouth, throat, or esophagus.

Q.15 The most serious complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a blockage known as.....

  1.  formation of venous ulcers
  2. chronic occlusion of veins
  3. gangrenous development of veins
  4. pulmonary embolism

Ans-pulmonary embolism

  • Rational-Pulmonary embolism is the first serious complication and the most serious factor of deep vein thrombosis or DVT. Pulmonary embolism is nothing but the situation where blood clots enter the bloodstream after breaking off from the veins and reaches the lungs. 

Q.16 The voice box is known as-

  1. Larynx
  2.  Diaphragm
  3. Bronchioles
  4. Pharynx


  • Rational-Larynx, a hollow, tubular structure connected to the top of the windpipe (trachea); air passes through the larynx on its way to the lungs. The larynx also produces vocal sounds and prevents the passage of food and other foreign particles into the lower respiratory tracts.

Q.17 What is the minimum possible score of Glasgow Coma Scale?

  1.  3
  2.  1
  3.  2
  4.  0

Ans- 3

  • Rational-Score for eye opening + score for best verbal response + score for best motor response = Glasgow Coma Scale What the Score Means Maximum score is 15 which has the best prognosis Minimum score is 3 which has the worst prognosis.

Q.18 Which of the following drugs is used for the dilation of pupil?

  1.  Tropicamide
  2. Betamethasone
  3. Levofloxacin
  4.  Gentamicin


  • Rational-Tropicamide blocks the receptors in the muscles of the eye (muscarinic receptors). These receptors are involved controlling the pupil size and the shape of the lens. By blocking these receptors, tropicamide produces dilatation of the pupil (mydriasis) and prevents the eye from accommodating for near vision (cycloplegia).

Q.19 After a renal transplant, the rejection that occurs within minutes is called-

  1. hyper acute rejection
  2. chronic rejection
  3. acute rejection
  4. sub-acute rejection

Ans-hyper acute rejection

Q.20 Haemophilia is associated with-

  1.  Chromosome 11
  2. Y chromosome
  3.  Chromosome 21
  4. X chromosome

Ans-X chromosome

  • Rational-HemophiliaA and hemophiliaB are inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The genes associated with these conditions are located on the X chromosome, which is one of the two sex chromosomes. In males (who have only one X chromosome), one altered copy of the gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the condition.

Q.21 Tonometry is the method of measuring the-

  1.  pressure inside the lungs
  2.  pressure inside the ear
  3. intraocular pressure
  4. blood pressure

Ans-intraocular pressure

  • Rational-Tonometry is a test to measure the pressure inside your eyes, referred to as intraocular eye pressure (IOP). Measuring your eye pressure is an important part of a comprehensive eye examination. If your eye pressure becomes higher than normal, you may be at risk for developing eye diseases such as glaucoma.

Q.22 The disease that occurs due to the defect in the genes of one or other parent and is
transmitted to the offspring is known as ______ disease/disorder.

  1.  congenital
  2.  allergic
  3. organic
  4.  hereditary

Ans- hereditary

Q.23 In acute pancreatitis, the levels of which of the following enzymes remain elevated for 7-14 days?

  1.  Urine amylase
  2. Serum amylase
  3. Serum alkylane phosphatase
  4. Serum lipase

Ans-Serum lipase

Q.24 Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of interstitial cystitis (IC)?

  1. Frequency
  2. Incontinence
  3. Urgency
  4. Pelvis pain


Q.25 Which among the following is a colloid solution?

  1. 0.9 % normal saline
  2. dextran
  3.  0.45 % normal saline
  4. 25 % dextrose


Q.26 Which of the following results from severe allergic reaction producing overwhelming systemic vasodilation and relative hypovolaemia?

  1.  Hypovolaemic shock
  2. Anaphylactic shock
  3. Neurogenic shock
  4. Septic shock

Ans-Anaphylactic shock

  • Rational-Anaphylaxis is a sudden and severe allergic reaction that involves more than one body system. 

Q.27 Which of the following enzymes converts fats into fatty acids and glycerol?

  1. Bile
  2. Trypsinogen
  3. Salivary amylase
  4. Lipase


  • Rational-Lipase is an enzyme that breaks down dietary fats into smaller molecules called fatty acids and . A small amount of lipase, called gastric lipase , is made by cells in your stomach. This enzyme specifically digests butter fat in your food.

Q.28 The movement of particles from region of higher concentration to region of lower concentration is called-

  1.  Diffusion
  2. Filtration
  3. Osmosis
  4. Hydrolysis


Q.29 The drugs used to constrict the pupils are-

  1. Mydriatics
  2. Sulphonamides
  3. Antibiotics
  4.  Miotics

Ans- miotics

Q.30 Which of the following parts of an eye alters the size of the pupil to regulate the amount of light entering the eye?

  1. Lens
  2. Cornea
  3. Retina
  4. Iris


  • Rational-The iris  the circular, colored area of the eye that surrounds the pupil controls the amount of light that enters the eye. The iris allows more light into the eye (enlarging or dilating the pupil) when the environment is dark and allows less light into the eye (shrinking or constricting the pupil) when the environment is bright.

Q.31 The type of incontinence in which there is constant dribbling of urine and is associated with urinating frequently and in small amount is called-

  1. overflow incontinence
  2. stress incontinence
  3. functional incontinence
  4. urge incontinence

Ans-overflow incontinence

Q.32 Using the ‘rule of nine’, estimated burn size in an adult having burn injury to chest and stomach is ______ per cent.

  1. 18
  2. 27
  3. 36
  4. 9


  • Rational-Estimating burn size in adults. See a picture of the "rule of nines" for adults. The front and back of the head and neck equal 9% of the body's surface area. The front and back of each arm and hand equal 9% of the body's surface area. The chest equals 9% and the stomach equals 9% of the body's surface area.

Q.33 Barium enema is used mainly for radiological examination of the-

  1.  brain
  2. colon
  3. heart
  4. oral cavity


Q.34 While doing colostomy irrigation, the height of the irrigation bag should be around-

  1. 18 inches
  2. 24 inches
  3.  12 inches
  4.  36 inches

Ans-18 inches

  • Rational-Hold the irrigation bag so that the bottom of the bag is at your shoulder level. This means the bag should be about 18 inches above your stoma. A hanging device can be put in the bathroom to hold the irrigation bag. Unsnap and remove the colostomy bag from your stoma.

Q.35 Which one of the following procedures is used to correct otosclerosis?

  1.  Myringoplasty
  2.  Myringotomy
  3.  Mastoidectomy
  4. Stapedectomy


  • Rational-Stapedectomy is a surgical procedure in which the innermost bone (stapes) of the three bones (the stapes, the incus, and the malleus) of the middle ear is removed, and replaced with a small plastic tube of stainless-steel wire (a prosthesis) to improve the movement of sound to the inner ear.

Q.36 The term pyrosis is related to-

  1.  Heartburn
  2. Pus formation
  3. Dysphagia
  4. Dyspepsia


  • Rational- Heartburn is actually pyrosis, caused by the presence of gastric secretions, called reflux, in the lower esophagus. See also related terms for presence.

Q.37 Which of the following is glandular tissue cancer?

  1.  Liposarcoma
  2. Adenocarcinoma
  3. Neuroblastoma
  4. Osteogenic sarcoma


  • Rational-Adenocarcinoma is a type of cancer that starts in mucus-producing glandular cells of your body. Many organs have these glands, and adenocarcinoma can occur in any of these organs.

Q.38 The cell-mediated immunity is carried out by-

  1.  Red blood cells
  2.  T lymphocytes
  3.  B lymphocytes
  4.  CD4 cells

Ans- T lymphocytes

Q.39 The lateral S-shaped curvature of the spine is called-

  1. Scoliosis
  2. Musculosis
  3. Kyphosis
  4. Lordosis


  • Rational-Scoliosis is a medical condition in which a person's spine has a sideways curve.The curve is usually "S"- or "C"-shaped over three dimensions. In some, the degree of curve is stable, while in others, it increases over time.Mild scoliosis does not typically cause problems, but severe cases can interfere with breathing.Typically, no pain is present. 

Q.40 ______ is a radiological examination using a minimal and safe amount of radiation to allow visualisation of breast masses.

  1. Computed tomography scan
  2. Lymphangiogram
  3. Angiogram
  4. Mammogram


  • Rational-Mammography (also called mastography) is the process of using low-energy X-rays (usually around 30 kVp) to examine the human breast for diagnosis and screening. The goal of mammography is the early detection of breast cancer, typically through detection of characteristic masses or microcalcifications.

Q.41 An individual with which of the following blood groups is a universal donor?

  1.  A -ve
  2. B +ve
  3. AB +ve
  4. O -ve

Ans-O -ve

  • Rational-People with type O blood are called "universal donors" because this type can be used for patients with any blood type. Type O blood is often in short supply in hospitals, due to demand for this universal donor type, according to the Red Cross.

Q.42 The loss of urine resulting from cognitive or environmental factors is the manifestation of-

  1. overflow incontinence
  2. functional incontinence
  3. urge incontinence
  4. reflex incontinence

Ans-functional incontinence

Q. 43 While assessing the level of consciousness of a patient using Glasgow Coma Scale, which of the following score represents the best motor response from the patient?

  1.  3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6


  • Rational-The Glasgow Coma Scale/Score (GCS) estimates coma severity based on Eye (4), Verbal (5), and Motor (6) criteria. This is an unprecedented time. It is the dedication of healthcare workers that will lead us through this crisis.

Q. 44 The loss of ability to recognise objects is called-

  1.  Dysarthria
  2. Alexia
  3. Ataxia
  4. Agnosia


  • Rational-Agnosia, loss or diminution of the ability to recognize objects, sounds, smells, tastes, or other sensory stimuli. Agnosia is sometimes described as perception without meaning. It is often caused by trauma to or degeneration of the parts of the brain involved in the integration of experience, perception, and memory.

Q.45 The name of the surgery in which there is removal of duodenum, head of pancreas, gall bladder and bile ducts is called:

  1.  appendectomy
  2. lumpectomy
  3. discectomy
  4. pancreatoduodenectomy


  • Rational-A pancreaticoduodenectomy, also known as a Whipple procedure, is a major surgical operation most often performed to remove cancerous tumours off the head of the pancreas.

Q. 46 Bell's Palsy is a disorder of the ______ cranial nerve.

  1.  3rd
  2. 7th
  3.  9th
  4.  5th


  • Rational-Bell's palsy is a non-progressive neurological disorder of one of the facial nerves (7th cranial nerve). This disorder is characterized by the sudden onset of facial paralysis that may be preceded by a slight fever, pain behind the ear on the affected side, a stiff neck, and weakness and/or stiffness on one side of the face.

Q.47 The most common side effect of thrombolytic therapy is-

  1.  metabolic abnormalities
  2.  internal bleeding
  3. compartment syndrome
  4. acute renal failure

Ans- internal bleeding

  • Rational-Haemorrhagic complications are the most frequent and serious problems following the use of thrombolytic agents. They can be lessened by the proper selection of patients to avoid those at high risk of bleeding. The avoidance of unnecessary arterial and venous punctures will decrease the incidence of minor but annoying local bleeding.

Q. 48 Which type of solution causes water to shift from the cells into the plasma?

  1.  Alkaline
  2. Hypotonic
  3. Acidic
  4. Hypertonic


  • Rational-A hypertonic solution contains a higher concentration of solutes compared to another solution. The opposite solution with a lower concentration is known as the hypotonic solution. Scientists must describe cell contents compared to the environment.

Q.49 Which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?

  1.  Ranitidine
  2. Famotidine
  3.  Pantoprazole
  4.  Sucralfate


Rational-Available proton pump inhibitors include-

  • omeprazole (Prilosec, Prilosec OTC)
  • aspirin and omeprazole (Yosprala)
  • lansoprazole ( Prevacid, Prevacid IV, Prevacid 24-Hour)
  • dexlansoprazole (Dexilent, Dexilent Solutab)
  • rabeprazole ( Aciphex, Aciphex Sprinkle)
  • pantoprazole ( Protonix)
  • esomeprazole ( Nexium, Nexium IV, Nexium 24 HR)
  • esomeprazole magnesium/ naproxen (Vimovo)

Q.50 Diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of which of the following hormones?

  1. Antidiuretic
  2. Glucagon
  3. Insulin
  4. Renin


  • Rational-Diabetes insipidus is caused by a lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also called vasopressin, which prevents dehydration, or the kidney's inability to respond to ADH.