AIIMS Delhi Nursing officer 2019

AIIMS Delhi Nursing officer Question with rational- 2019

Q. 1. A nurse is preparing to give bath to admitted patient with perineal problem. Which of the following will help the patient?

  1. Bed bath
  2. Therapeutic bath
  3. Self-bath with minimal help
  4.  None of the above

Ans-Therapeutic bath

Q. 2. Nurse off from floor and patient fall from bed. This type of injury belongs to-

  1. Battery
  2.  Negligence
  3. Tort
  4. None

Ans- Negligence

Q. 3. Patients Medical record with all essential information is responsibility of?

  1.  Patient
  2. Director
  3. Treating doctor
  4. Medical superintendent

Ans-Medical superintendent

Q. 4. Post-partum women having bleeding from 1st day after delivery is called as?

  1. Primary PPH
  2. Secondary PPH
  3. Third stage hemorrhage
  4. True post-partum hemorrhage

Ans- Secondary PPH

  • Rational-A secondary postpartum haemorrhage is defined as abnormal or excessive bleeding from the birth canal between 24 hours and 12 weeks of the postnatal period. Primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is more common and more dangerous ( Read more abou Primary PPH here .

Q. 5. In which condition distal pulse is preferred rather than apical pulse?

  1. Arrythmia
  2.  Shock
  3.  Hypertension
  4.  Heart block

Ans- Shock

Q. 6. A pre-eclampsia women baby is lying with her mother. Neonate born in 37 weeks after 57 hrs. when she monitoring vital signs of baby, temperature is low 35oC, what you will do for that?

  1.  Give punishment for mother for not caring baby
  2.  Separate the baby from mother
  3.  Place baby under radiant warmer
  4. Cover the baby and check the vitals after 30 minutes

Ans-Cover the baby and check the vitals after 30 minutes

Q. 7. A woman with 3rd day postpartum has complaint of engorgement in both breasts. What is cut off temperature for fever in post-partum woman?

  1.  37 degree Celsius
  2. 38 degree Celsius
  3. 39 degree Celsius
  4.  34 degree Celsius

Ans-38 degree Celsius

Q. 8. Universal blood donor?

  1.  O
  2.  AB
  3.  A
  4.  B

Ans- O

  • Rational-Blood group O is called as universal donor as it can be donated to any person having either A or B or AB or O blood groups. This ability of it is due to the absence of A and B antigens on the surface of blood cells.

Q. 9. WHO Hand wash time with soap?

  1.  40 to 60 seconds
  2.  20 to 30 seconds
  3.  2 minutes
  4.  5 minutes

Ans-40 to 60 seconds

Q. 10. Why it is necessary to remove dark colored nail paint before surgery?

  1.  Nail paint interfere with SPO2 monitoring and we cannot assess Capillary Refill time (CRT)
  2.  To prevent burns from cautery
  3.  Nail paint increases chances of infections
  4.  To follow OT ethics

Ans- Nail paint interfere with SPO2 monitoring and we cannot assess Capillary Refill time (CRT)

  • Rational-Most surgeons will use a pulse oximeter to measure your oxygen levels during surgery. We used to tell patients that they needed to remove their nail polish in order to get accurate readings on the pulse oximeter.This is done because the doctors/nurses need to be able to see your natural finger nail to check your circulation.

Q. 11. Patient with MRSA admitted in MICU, the nurse has to provide colostomy care to patient. Which PPE should the nurse use?

  1. Gloves, Gown, Mask
  2. Gloves only
  3. Gloves & mask
  4.  Gloves shoe cover 

Ans-Gloves, Gown, Mask

Q. 12. Which Leopold maneuver is used to assess the fetal attitude during abdominal palpation of an ANC mother?

  1.  First
  2.  Second
  3. Third
  4.  Fourth

Ans- Fourth

  • Rational-The four Leopold’s maneuvers are:

A . First Maneuver

  1. to determine presenting part at the fundus
  2.  head is more firm, hard and round that moves independently of the body
  3.  Breech is less well defined that moves only in conjunction with the body

B. . Second Maneuver

  1. one hand: will feel smooth, hard resistant surface (the back)
  2.  to determine fetal back 
  3.  the opposite side, a number of angular nodulation (knees and elbows of fetus)

C.  Third Maneuver

  1. to determine position and mobility of presenting part by grasping the lower portion of the abdomen (just above the symphysis pubis).
  2.  If the presenting part moves upward so the examiner’s hand can be pressed together, then presenting part is not engaged

D.  Fourth Maneuver

  1. to determine fetal descent
  2. fingers are pressed in both side of the uterus approximately 2 inches above the inguinal ligaments, then press upward and inward.
  3. Good attitude if brow correspond to the side (2nd maneuver) that contained the elbows and knees.
  4. Poor attitude if examining fingers will meet an obstruction on the same side as fetal back (hyperextended head).
  5. the fingers of the hand that do not meet obstruction palpates the fetal neck, as the fingers of the other hand meet an obstruction above the ligaments palpates the fetal brow.
  6.  also palpates infant’s anteroposterior position. If brow is very easily palpated, fetus is at posterior position (occiput pointing towards woman’s back).

Q. 13. Self-care deficit theory proposed by-

  1.  D Orem’s
  2.  Rogers
  3.  Betty Newman
  4. Leininger

Ans- D Orem’s

  • Rational-Dorothea Orem’s Self-Care Deficit Theory 1 Description. Dorothea Orem’s Self-Care Deficit Theory defined Nursing as “The act of assisting others in the provision and management of self-care to maintain or improve human functioning at home level.

Q. 14. Patient with Anorexia nervosa taking food correctly as per her diet plan, but there was no increase in weight observed. What will be nursing intervention for the above patient?

  1.  Observe patient while taking meal and after up to 2 hours
  2. Increase calorie of food from 1500 to 2000
  3.  Add vitamin tablet to her medications
  4.  Engage them in other activities

Ans-Observe patient while taking meal and after up to 2 hours

Q. 15. In a 50 over match, the chasing team scored 5 runs per over in the first 30 over. Required run rate is 10 runs per over. What is the score of first team?

  1.  350
  2.  349
  3.  250
  4. 399

Ans- 349

Q. 16. What is the difference in regular ECT and Modified ECT?

  1.  Low Volt shock is provided
  2.  Anesthesia is given
  3.  Muscle relaxant is given
  4. Pain killer is provided

Ans- Muscle relaxant is given

Q. 17. All are crystalloid solutions except?

  1.  Normal saline
  2.  Ringer lactate
  3.  5% Dextrose
  4.  HES

Ans- HES

Q. 18. An antenatal mother is admitted with complaints of eclampsia. What will be the loading dose of MgSO4 given to patient?

  1.  4 ml in 16 ml NS
  2.  8 ml in 12 ml of NS
  3. 6 ml in 14 ml of NS
  4.  2 ml in 18 ml of NS

Ans-8 ml in 12 ml of NS

Q. 19. Which among Measures of dispersion?

  1. Mean
  2. Range
  3.  Mode
  4.  Median


  • Rational-Examples of dispersion measures include-
  1.  Standard deviation
  2. Interquartile range (IQR)
  3.  Range
  4.  Mean absolute difference (also known as Gini mean absolute difference)
  5. Average absolute deviation (or simply called average deviation)
  6.  Distance standard deviation.
  7. Median absolute deviation (MAD)

Q. 20. A patient was brought to ED with complaint of chest pain from last 1 hour. Which test is done to detect myocardial infarction?

  1.  Serum electrolyte
  2.  Check ABG
  3.  Check CBC
  4.  Troponin T

Ans- Troponin T

Q. 21. Which of the psychiatric drug does not need any test dose before starting routine dose?

  1.  Haloperidol
  2.  Risperidone
  3.  Clozapine
  4. Quitepine


Q. 22. A patient admitted in a ward with the diagnosis of delirium. In first 24 to 48 hours what nurse plan according to priority-

  1. Orientation to person, place and environment
  2.  To restore bladder and bowel function
  3. Correct the wake and sleep cycle
  4.  To improve nutritional status

Ans-Orientation to person, place and environment

Q. 23. A patient posted of surgery advised to remove Jewelry because?

  1.  To maintain OR ethics
  2. It causes burns to patient with use of cautery
  3. To prevent theft
  4.  To prevent disturbance to surgeon

Ans-It causes burns to patient with use of cautery

Q. 24. At what time ward census done?

  1.  Day time
  2.  Morning shift
  3.  Evening shift
  4.  None of the above

Ans- None of the above

  • Rational-In the hospital setting, the total number of patients admitted to the facility by midnight, or sometimes at another time of the day or evening. average daily census the average number of patients per day in a hospital over a given period of time; admitted patients and outpatients are counted separately.

Q. 25. Adrenaline dose in anaphylactic shock is-

  1.  1:1000 (0.5ml)
  2.  1.10000(0.5ml)
  3.  1:1000 (1 ml)
  4. 1: 10000 (1ml)

Ans- 1:1000 (1 ml)

  • Rational-Intravenous administration of adrenaline for anaphylaxis requires the use of a 1:10000 adrenaline solution. Do not give the undiluted 1:1000 adrenaline intravenously. Method of Administration. Adrenaline Injection 1/1000 (1mg/ml) may be administered undiluted by IM injection.

Q. 26. Position for patients with continuous RT feeding-

  1.  Supine
  2.  Fowlers
  3. Reverse Trendelenburg
  4. Side lying


  • Rational-The patient's head should be elevated at least 30 degrees during and after the feeding to prevent regurgitation. If the patient is receiving a tube feeding into the intestine, positioning is not critical.

Q. 27. Normally enteral feedings are flushed with water to open blocked tube and ease feeding. In which area It is done with air?

  1.  NICU
  2.  Operation unit
  3.  Rehabilitation unit
  4.  Critical care unit


Q. 28. 19-year-old unmarried girl came to gynae OPD for vaccination against cervical cancer. Which vaccine will be administered to the client?

  1.  Gardasil
  2.  TCV
  3. Bexsero
  4.  HBV

Ans- Gardasil

  • Rational-GARDASIL 9 is a vaccine indicated in females 9 through 45 years of age for the prevention of cervical, vulvar, vaginal, anal, oropharyngeal and other head and neck cancers caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) Types 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, and 58; cervical, vulvar, vaginal, and anal precancerous or dysplastic lesions caused by HPV Types 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, and 58; and genital warts caused by HPV Types 6 and 11.

Q. 29. Patient in emergency dept. diagnosed to have fluid and air present in lung. What is the above-mentioned condition known as?

  1.  Hemothorax
  2.  Hydro-Pneumothorax
  3.  Heamo-pneumothorax
  4.  Pneumothorax

Ans- Hydro-Pneumothorax

  • Rational-A hydropneumothorax is a term denoting the simultaneous presence of air and fluid in the pleural space. This clinical entity may be encountered in numerous conditions, including severe infections, trauma, and malignant diseases, with respiratory symptoms depending on the course and severity of hydropneumothorax, as well as accompanying respiratory changes.

Q. 30. Lignocaine and adrenaline not used for repair of injury to digitalis because?

  1.  Adrenaline causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels supplying digitalis which may lead to decreased tissue perfusion and necrosis
  2.  Adrenaline decreases the effect of lignocaine
  3.  Adrenaline causes systemic effect
  4.  Adrenaline causes vasodilation which may lead to increased bleeding.

Ans- Adrenaline causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels supplying digitalis which may lead to decreased tissue perfusion and necrosis

Q. 31. Patient with DVT is advised Low molecular heparin. At which site Nurse will administer this?

  1.  SC
  2.  IM
  3.  Oral
  4.  IV

Ans- SC

  • Rational-Therapy started with a low molecular weight heparin injection. All patients received LMW heparin (Enoxaparin). The dose given was at the rate of 1 mg / kg body weight (average 40 mg) subcutaneous (s.c.) at 12 hourly intervals, and APTT was monitored weekly.

Q. 32. Glove papers are discarded in which BMW dustbin?

  1. Black dustbin
  2. Red dustbin
  3. Yellow dustbin
  4.  Blue dustbin

Ans-Black dustbin

Q. 33. BMW management of vial and broken ampule discarded in-

  1.  Blue dustbin
  2.  Red dustbin
  3.  Black dust bin
  4. Blue cardboard box

Ans-Blue cardboard box-
Blue cardboard box discard-

  • Infected broken glass/ bottle 
  • Broken or unbroken glass ware
  • vial
  • Ampules
  • Glass ware/ IV bottle (0.45 NS
  • Manitol injection bottle
  • Metallic body implants 
  • Glass ware item used in ward
  • Glass piece 
  •  Glass Bottle
  •  Glass Slides(Laborites) 
  • Glass Syringes 

Q. 34. Sharp blades and needle to be discarded in which of following?

  1.  Black cardboard
  2.  Red
  3.  White container
  4. Blue

Ans- White container

Rational-- White container(White Puncture proof container)

  • Waste sharp including metals
  •  Needle 
  • Syringe with fixed needle 
  •  Needle from needle tip cutter or burner l
  • Scalpels
  •  Blade/Razor
  • Suture needle
  • Spine needle 
  • Contaminated metal sharp objects. 
  • Lancets 
  • Nails 

Q. 35. Vicryl 3-0 is-

  1. Natural absorbable
  2.  Synthetic non-absorbable
  3. Synthetic absorbable
  4.  Natural non absorbable

Ans-Synthetic absorbable

  • Rational-A Vicryl suture is a synthetic, absorbable suture. It is commonly applied to wounds or incisions in interior body tissues, where removal of traditional sutures would be disruptive.