Important Nursing Examination Questions

Important Nursing Examination Questions

Q.1 The therapeutic effective of serum lithium concentration level is monitored-

  1. Within 12 hours
  2. 12-24 hours
  3. 24-48 hours
  4. 48 - 72 hours 

Ans-12-24 hours

Q.2 A person who deliberately pretends an illness is usually thought to be-

  1. Out of concept with reality
  2. Using conversion defenses
  3. Malingering
  4. Neurotic

Ans- Using conversion defenses

Q.3 A child with severe mental retardation has IQ level-

  1. More than 70
  2. 35-70
  3. 20-35
  4. Less than 20 


Q.3 Delirium is a disorder of-

  1. Perception
  2. Consciousness
  3. Memory
  4. Thought 


Q.4 Psychological mechanism that reduces anxiety arising from unacceptable or potentially harmful stimuli. The nurse determines that this is use of-

  1. Affective reaction
  2. Withdrawal pattern
  3. Defense mechanism
  4. Ritualistic behavior

Ans-Defense mechanism

Q.5 Klumpke's palsy is due to the involvement of-

  1. 5th and 6th cervical nerve
  2. 7th and 8th cervical nerve
  3. 5thand 6th thorasic nerve
  4. 7th and 8th thorasic nerve

Ans-7th and 8th cervical nerve

Q.6 When the neck of the child is flexed passively, the flexion of the knee occurs this represents-

  1. Kerning's sign
  2. Stallworthy's sign
  3. Brudzinski sign
  4. Lamba sign  

Ans-Brudzinski sign

Q.7 Prophylactic administration of vitamin A in a child is-

  1. Health promotion
  2. Treatment
  3. Rehabilitation 
  4. Specific protection

Ans-Specific protection

Q.8 The most appropriate method for assessing pain in a toddler is-

  1. Assess for changes in vital signs
  2. Observe the child for restlessness
  3. Use a numeric pain scale
  4. Ask the child about pain 

Ans-Observe the child for restlessness

Q.9 What would you do if the VVM of OPV vaccine is unusable.

  1. Give vaccine to the child
  2. Do not give the vaccine to the child
  3. Report to the CMOH
  4. Vaccine vial kept in the sunlight 

Ans- Do not give the vaccine to the child

Q.10 A child is diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis, a nurse educate the mother to do all, except-

  1. Share towel and wash cloths
  2. Give eye drop as prescribed
  3. Clean eyes as prescribed
  4. Wash hands frequently 

Ans-Share towel and wash cloths

Q.11 Which of the following condition is not under the cyanotic heart disease-

  1. Tetralogy of fallot
  2. Transposition of great arteries
  3. Patent ductus arteriosus
  4. Truncus arteriosus 

Ans-Patent ductus arteriosus

Q.12 Hormone responsible for skeletal maturation of fetus-

  1. Progesterone
  2. Thyroxin
  3.  Estrogen
  4. Testosterone


Q.13 During resuscitation in an infant, ratio of chest compression and ventilation breath should be-

  1. 1:5
  2. 5:1
  3. 1:3
  4. 3:1 


Q.14 In caring pancreatitis patient, which of the following diet the nurse should plan?

  1. High protein, high carbohydrate, low fat diet
  2. High carbohydrate, high protein, low fat and low residue diet
  3. High carbohydrate, low fat with fruits and vegetables
  4. Small and frequent bland diet 

Ans-High carbohydrate, high protein, low fat and low residue diet

Q.15 Which of the following drugs should be withheld before haemodialysis-

  1.  Insulin
  2. Calcium preparations
  3.  Digoxin
  4.  Antihypertensive 

Ans- Digoxin

Q.16 Allergic reactions caused by environmental allergens is known as-

  1.  Anaphylactic reactions
  2.  Atopic reactions
  3.  Cytotoxic reactions
  4.  Immune complex reactions 

Ans- Atopic reactions

Q.17 According to American Cancer Society's guidelines all sexually active women should undergo Pap test how frequently-

  1. Every 5 years
  2. Every 3 years
  3. Every 2 years
  4. Every year till 3 consecutive negative results 

Ans-Every year till 3 consecutive negative results 

Q.18 Excessive secretion of vasopressin is responsible for which of the following disorder?

  1. Diabetes Insipidus
  2. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
  3. Cushing's syndrome
  4.  Addisonian's crisis 

Ans-Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone

Q.19 Which of the following symptoms is not characteristics manifestation of anorexia nervosa ?

  1.  Hypotension
  2.  Menorrhagia
  3.  Pallor
  4.  Constipation 


Q.20 A client arrives from surgery to the post anaesthesia care unit. The nurse should complete which of the following respiratory assessment first ?

  1. Breath sound
  2. Respiratory rate
  3. Oxygen saturation
  4. Airway flow

Ans- Airway flow

Q.21 Which of the following arterial blood gas values is consistent with metabolic acidosis

  1. pH- 7.35
  2. HCO3 -15Eq/L
  3. PaCO2 - 46 mmHg
  4. PaO2-95 mm Hg

Ans-HCO3 -15Eq/L

Q.22 The most common cause of myocardial infarction is-

  1. Aneurysm of the coronary artery
  2. Occlusion of coronary artery by an embolus
  3. Thrombus formation in a coronary artery
  4. Vasospasm of coronary artery 

Ans-Thrombus formation in a coronary artery

Q.23 The correct position to palpate the epical pulse is at the-

  1. Left midclavicular line at the level of second intercostal space
  2. Left midclavicular line at the level of fifth intercostal space
  3. Left axillary line at the level of fifth intercostal space
  4. Left midclavicular line at the level of seventh intercostals space 

Ans-Left midclavicular line at the level of fifth intercostal space

Q.24 Which of the following conditions is an early symptom commonly seen in myasthenia gravis ?

  1. Respiratory distress
  2. Ptosis
  3. Parasthesia of lower extremities
  4. Dysphagia 

Ans- Ptosis

Q.25 Presbyopia is treated by-

  1. Convex lens
  2. Concave lens
  3. Both convex and concave lens
  4. Refractive surgery 

Ans-Convex lens

Q.26 The term refers to all current cases existing at a point/period of time in a given population is known as-

  1.  Incidence
  2.  Prevalence
  3.  Surveillance
  4.  None of the above


Q.27 According to CRS registration of birth within

  1. 7 days
  2. 10 days
  3. 14 days
  4. 21 days 

Ans-21 days

Q.28 The constant presence of disease within a geographic area is known as-

  1.  Epidemic
  2.  Sporadic
  3.  Endemic
  4. Pandemic 


Q.29 Gold-standard in confirming the diagnosis of malaria is-

  1.  Polymerase chain reaction
  2. Peripheral smear examination
  3.  Immunochromatographic test
  4. Radioimmunoessay 

Ans-Peripheral smear examination

Q.30 Vaccine against rota virus is given in which route

  1. Oral
  2.  Intra-dermal
  3. Subcutaneous
  4.  Intramuscular 


Q.31 The course for Community Health Officer is- 

  1.  DCHN
  2.  DCHNEA
  3.  BPHN
  4.  BPCCHN 



Q.32 Dose of DMPA is-

  1. 200 mg after every two months
  2. 200mg monthly
  3. 150 mg after every three months
  4. 100 mg for two weeks 

Ans-150 mg after every three months

Q.33 Polio is the primary infection of-

  1. Urinary system
  2. Respiratory system
  3. Gastrointestinal system
  4. Central nervous system

Ans-Gastrointestinal system

Q.34 Commonest cause of infant mortality rate in India is-

  1.  Respiratory infection
  2. Congenital malformation
  3.  Dehydration
  4.  Prematurity 

Ans- Prematurity 

Q.35 The full form of AEFI

  1. Adverse effect following injection
  2. Adverse events following Immunization
  3. Adverse effects following immunization
  4. Adverse events following injection 

Ans- Adverse events following Immunization

  • Rational-Adverse events following immunization (AEFI) As vaccine-preventable infectious diseases continue to decline, people have become increasingly concerned about the risks associated with vaccines.

Q.36 The rashes of the chicken pox first appear on

  1.  Legs
  2.  Arm
  3.  Chest
  4.  Trunk 

Ans- Trunk 

Q.37 The level of immunity that is present in a population against an infectious agent is known as-

  1.  Innate immunity
  2. Acquired immunity
  3.  Passive immunity
  4. Herd immunity 

Ans-Herd immunity 

Q.38 For delivery of the aftercoming head in breech presentation, specially designed forceps is used-

  1.  Das's forceps
  2.  Piper forceps
  3.  Kielland's forceps
  4.  Wrigley's forceps

Ans- Piper forceps

Q.39 The condition in which leading edge of the uterine prolapse extends from 1 cm above to 1 cm below the hymenal ring is staged as-

  1.  Stage I
  2.  Stage II
  3.  Stage III
  4.  Stage IV

Ans- Stage II

Q.40 A nurse is caring for a client who has spontaneous abortion. For what complication the nurse should assess-

  1.  Haemorrhage
  2.  Dehydration
  3.  Subinvolution
  4.  Hypertension 

Ans- Haemorrhage

Q.41 Avaccine can be-

  1. Weakened pathogen
  2. An Antigenic protein
  3. Live Attenuated Pathogen
  4. All of theses

Ans-All of theses

Q.42 Active Immunity may be gained by-

  1. Toxoids
  2. Vaccines
  3. Natural Infection
  4. All of these

Ans-All of these

Q.43 Which of the following  statments are true regrading  Polio Vaccine's-

  1. Salk and Sabin are polio vaccines
  2. Sabin is live attenuated polio vaccine 
  3. Salk is an Inactivated poilio Vaccine
  4. All of these

Ans-Salk and Sabin are polio vaccines

Q.44 All the given  Vaccines are Attenuated or Inactivated whole pathogen except-

  1. Tetanus
  2. Hepatitis A
  3. Sabin
  4. Salk