CHITTARANJAN NATIONAL CANCER(CNCI) Exam Nursing officers 2021

CHITTARANJAN NATIONAL CANCER(CNCI) Exam Nursing officers 04-07-2021

1. Warning signs of lung cancer include persistent cough, bloody sputum, dyspnea and which of the other following symptoms?

  1.  Dizziness
  2.  Generalized weakness
  3.  Hypotension
  4.  Recurrent pleural effusion
  • Ans.-4. Recurrent pleural effusion

2. At the time of diagnosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, which of the following area is often involved?

  1. Back
  2.  Neck
  3.  Chest
  4.  Groin
  • Ans-2. Neck

3. Which of the following is a malignant tumor of the connective tissue?

  1.  Sarcoma
  2. Carcinoma
  3. Osteoma
  4.  Glaucoma
  • Ans-1. Sarcoma

4. Which of the following is suggested surgical intervention for Ca Prostate?

  1.  Radical prostatectomy
  2.  Bilateral orchiectomy
  3. Transurethral resection of prostate (T.U.R.P)
  4.  Transurethral resection of bladder tumor (T.U.R.B.T)
  • Ans-1. Radical prostatectomy

5. Which type of cancer has poorest prognosis given below?

  1.  Leukemia
  2.  Breast cancer
  3.  Pancreatic cancer
  4.  Lymphoma
  • Ans-3. Pancreatic cancer

6. Which of the following is the feature of benign tumor?

  1.  Infiltrative type of growth
  2. Metastasis is present
  3.  Contained within a capsule
  4.  Grows rapidly
  • Ans-3. Contained within a capsule

7. The patient with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. The nurse identifies which intervention as the highest priority in the nursing plan of care?

  1.  Ambulation three times a day
  2.  Monitoring a platelet count
  3.  Monitoring temperature
  4.  Monitoring for pathological factors
  • Ans-2. Monitoring a platelet count


8. In the patient with terminal lung cancer, the focus of nursing care is on which of the following nursing interventions?

  1. Prepare the patient’s will
  2.  Provide nutritional support
  3.  Provide emotional support
  4.  Provide pain control
  • Ans-4. Provide pain control

9. Mrs. Sharma with advanced breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching the patient about this drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of reporting which adverse reaction immediately?

  1.  Hearing loss
  2.  Headache
  3.  Vision changes
  4.  Anorexia
  • Ans-3. Vision changes

10. Kaposi’s sarcoma is the type of cancer which is common in people with?

  1.  Kidney failure
  2.  Liver cirrhosis
  3.  Kangri cancer
  4.  HIV
  • Ans-4. HIV

11. Which of the following is a malignant tumor of the bone?

  1. Fibrosarcoma
  2.  Lipoma
  3.  Osteogenic sarcoma
  4.  Osteoma
  • Ans-3. Osteogenic sarcoma

12. A male patient is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. The most likely side effect to be expected is_______?

  1.  Dyspnea
  2.  Diarrhea
  3.  Sore Throat
  4. Constipation
  • Ans-3. Sore Throat

13. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for the diagnosis of prostate cancer?

  1.  Digital rectal examination
  2.  Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
  3.  Prostate biopsy
  4.  All of the above
  • Ans-4. All of the above

14. The presence of which protein in urine is suggestive of the diagnosis multiple myeloma?

  1.  Fibronectin
  2.  Elastin
  3.  Bence-Jones proteins
  4.  Collagen
  • Ans-3. Bence-Jones proteins

15. The patient with leukemia is receiving busulfan (Myleran) and allopurinol (Zyloprim). The nurse tells the patient that the purpose of the allopurinol is to prevent________?

  1.  Alopecia
  2.  Hyperuricemia
  3. Vomiting
  4.  Nausea
  • Ans-2. Hyperuricemia    

16. A nurse is teaching a patient who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the patient that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by_________?

  1.  Breast self-examination
  2.  Mammography
  3.  Chest X-ray
  4.  Fine needle aspiration
  • Ans-4. Fine needle aspiration

17. Common cancer of oral cavity is __________?

  1.  Adenocarcinoma
  2.  Squamous cell carcinoma
  3.  Sarcoma
  4.  Melanoma
  • Ans-2. Squamous cell carcinoma

18. A 36-year-old man with lymphoma presents with signs of impending septic shock 9 days after chemotherapy. The nurse could expect which of the following to be present?

  1.  Flushing, decreased oxygen saturation, mild hypotension
  2.  Low grade fever, chills,tachycardia
  3.  Elevated temperature, oliguria, hypotension
  4.  High grade fever, normal blood pressure, increased respirations
  • Ans-2. Low grade fever, chills,tachycardia

19. In staging and grading neoplasm TNN system is used. TNM stand for?

  1.  Time, neoplasm, mode of growth
  2.  Tumor, node, metastasis
  3. Tumor, neoplasm, mode of growth
  4. Time, node, metastasis
  • Ans-2. Tumor, node, metastasis

20. A patient has undergone external radiation therapy. The expected side effects include the following apart from?

  1.  Hair loss
  2.  Ulceration of oral mucous membranes
  3. Constipation
  4.  Headache
  • Ans-3. Constipation

21. Skin reactions are common in radiation therapy. Nursing responsibilities on promoting skin integrity should be promoted apart from?

  1.  Avoiding the use of ointments, powders and lotion to the area
  2.  Using soft cotton fabrics for clothing
  3.  Washing the area with a mild soap and water and patting it fry, not rubbing it
  4. Avoiding direct sunlight or cold
  • Ans-3. Washing the area with a mild soap and water and patting it fry, not rubbing it

22. Radiation protection is very important to implement when performing nursing procedures. When the nurse is not performing any nursing procedures, what distance should be maintained from the patient?

  1. 1 feet
  2.  2 feet
  3. 2.5 feet
  4. 3 feet
  • Ans-4. 3 feet

23. A patient is taking cyclophosphamide for the treatment of the lymphoma. The nurse is very cautious while administering the medication because this drug poses the fatal side effect of ____?

  1.  Alopecia
  2.  Myeloma
  3. CNS toxicity
  4. Hemorrhagic cystitis
  • Ans-4. Hemorrhagic cystitis

24. Specific classification of the chemotherapeutic agent, Vincristine is __________?

  1.  Hormone modulator
  2.  Mitotic inhibitor
  3.  Antineoplastic antibiotic
  4.  Antimetabolite
  • Ans-2. Mitotic inhibitor

25. A 25-year-old patient is inquiring about the method or ways to detect cancer earlier. The nurse least likely identify this method by stating_____?

  1.  Annual chest X-ray
  2.  Annual pap smear for sexually active women only
  3.  Annual digital rectal examination for persons over age of 40
  4.  Yearly physical and blood examination
  • Ans-2. Annual pap smear for sexually active women only

26. All are recognized tumor markers except _________?

  1. Beta HCG
  2.  Beta-2-microglobulin
  3.  Alpha fetoprotein
  4.  Acid phosphatase
  • Ans-4. Acid phosphatase

27. Least amenable to screening is

  1.  Breast
  2.  Cervixc.
  3.  Oral cavity
  4.  Lung
  • Ans-4. Lung

28. In which of the following head/neck cancers is lymph node metastasis least common?

  1.  Tongue
  2. Bucal Mucosa
  3.  Hard Palate
  4. Lower alveolus
  • Ans-3. Hard Palate

29. Secondaries of all following cause osteolytic lesions except_______?

  1.  Prostate
  2.  Kidney
  3.  Bronchus
  4. Thyroid
  • Ans-1. Prostate

30. Treatment of bone metastasis is by__________?

  1. Samarium 153
  2.  I-131 with tositumomab
  3. P-32
  4. Yttrium
  • Ans-1. Samarium 153

31. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by____________?

  1.  PTH
  2.  PTH-rp
  3.  IL-6
  4.  Calcitonin
  • Ans-2. PTH-rp

32. A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute lower abdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and leucopenia. Which of the following is the clinical diagnosis?

  1. Appendicitis
  2.  Leukemic colitis
  3.  perforation peritonitis
  4.  Neutropenic Colitis
  • Ans-4. Neutropenic Colitis

33. Drug used for estrogen dependent breast cancer?

  1.  Tamoxifen
  2. Clomiphene citrate
  3. Estrogen
  4. Adriamycin
  • Ans-1. Tamoxifen

34. All are removed in Radical mastectomy except ______?

  1. Pectoralis major
  2. Pectoralis minor
  3.  Axillary lymph node
  4.  Supraclavicular node
  • Ans-4. Supraclavicular node

35. Estrogen receptor studies in carcinoma Breast is done on________?

  1.  Blood
  2.  Urine
  3.  Tumor tissue
  4.  Ovary
  • Ans-3. Tumor tissue

36. Complication of total thyroidectomy include all except ____________?

  1. Hoarseness
  2. Airway obstruction
  3. Hemorrhage
  4. Hypercalcemia
  • Ans-4. Hypercalcemia

37. In the post-operative room after the thyroid surgery, patient developed breathlessness and the wound was seen bulging with blood stained. What would be the first thing to do?

  1.  Tracheostomy
  2.  Cricothyroidotomy
  3.  Laryngoscopy and intubation
  4.  Remove the stitch and take the patient to OT
  • Ans-4. Remove the stitch and take the patient to OT

38. After Cholecystectomy, there was 50 ml bile output from the drain on the first post-operative day .Management is ____________.

  1.  Intrabiliary stent
  2. Immediate exploration
  3.  T-tube drainage
  4.  Observation
  • Ans-4. Observation

39. Which maneuver is done to temporarily stop inadvertent bleeding during cholecystectomy

  1.  Patey
  2.  pringle
  3. kocher
  4. billroth
  • Ans-2. pringle

40. The following anastomosis are done in whipple procedure except ________?

  1. Hepatico-jejunostomy
  2.  Pancreato gastrectomy
  3. Gastro jejunostomy
  4. Jejuno-jejunostomy
  • Ans-4. Jejuno-jejunostomy

41. The most likely cause of fluctuating jaundice in a middle aged/elderly man is-

  1.  Periampullary cancer
  2. Liver fluke infestation
  3.  Choledochal cyst
  4.  Carcinoma head of pancreas
  • Ans-1. Periampullary cancer

42. Most common cause of upper GI bleeding?

  1. Gastric ulcer
  2.  Esophageal varices
  3.  Gastritis
  4.  Carcinoma stomach
  • Ans-1. Gastric ulcer

43. A 60-year-old man suffering from left colon cancer presented with acute left colonic obstruction and the treatment is___________.

  1. Primary resection and Hartman procedure
  2.  Defunctioning colostomy
  3.  Right hemicolectomy
  4.  Resection and end to end anastomosis
  • Ans-1. Primary resection and Hartman procedure

44. BCG is used in the treatment of ___________?

  1.  Carcinoma cervix
  2.  Carcinoma colon
  3.  Carcinoma of urinary bladder
  4.  All of the above
  • Ans-3. Carcinoma of urinary bladder

45. Most radiation sensitive testicular tumor is_________________.

  1. Seminoma
  2.  Teratoma
  3.  Interstitial cell tumor
  4.  None of the above
  • Ans-1. Seminoma

46. Most common site to put a chest drain in case of pleural effusion?

  1.  2nd intercostal space midclavicular line
  2.  7th intercostal space midaxillary line
  3. 5th intercostal space mid clavicular line
  4.  5th intercostal space just lateral to vertebral column
  • Ans-2. 7th intercostal space midaxillary line

47. Virus causing head and neck cancer _________.

  1.  EBV
  2. HSV
  3.  HPV
  4. HBV
  • Ans-1. EBV

48. All these are feeding tubes except?

  1. Freca tube
  2.  Ryles tube
  3. PEG tube
  4.  T Tube
  • Ans-4. T Tube

49. All these are types of esophageal surgeries, except__________.

  1. Ivor-lewis
  2. Mc-keons
  3.  Transhiatal
  4.  Cytoreductive
  • Ans-4. Cytoreductive

50. AFP is raised in ___________?

  1. Ca prostate
  2.  HCC
  3.  Ca lung
  4. Ca Colon
  • Ans-2. HCC

51. Name the non-stimulant drug with Norepinephrine reuptake inhibiting action used in the treatment of ADHD.

  1.  Atomoxetine
  2.  Dexamphetamine
  3.  Methyl Phenidate
  4. Pimozide
  • Ans-1. Atomoxetine

52. How should a nurse administer an iron injection to an adult?

  1. Intradermal in the forearm
  2.  Subcutaneous in the arm
  3.  Z track intramuscular in the gluteal
  4. Intramuscular in the deltoid
  • Ans-3. Z track intramuscular in the gluteal

53. The expected height of a normal child at 12 months is?

  1.  45 cm
  2.  50 cm
  3.  75 cm
  4. 100 cm
  • Ans-3. 75 cm

54. Increased depth of breathing with normal respiratory rate is called?

  1.  Kussmaul’s breathing
  2.  Bradypnea
  3. Orthopnea
  4. Hyperpnea
  • Ans-4. Hyperpnea

55. A nurse enters a room and find a patient lying on the floor. Which action should the nurse perform first?

  1. Assist the patient back to bed
  2. Establish whether the patient is responsive
  3.  Ask the patient what happened
  4.  Call for help to get the patient back in bed
  • Ans-2. Establish whether the patient is responsive

56. The neutral tube defect among newborn can be prevented by providing?

  1.  Iron to the mother in third trimester
  2.  Folic acid to mother in first trimester
  3.  Iron & folic acid throughout pregnancy
  4.  Vitamin K to the mother in first trimester
  • Ans-2. Folic acid to mother in first trimester

57. What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

  1. Morning sickness
  2.  Lethargy
  3.  Excessive vomiting
  4. Excessive loose motion
  • Ans-3. Excessive vomiting

58. Which position to be provided to an unconscious patient while performing mouth care?

  1.  Fowler’s position
  2.  Knee chest
  3. Supine
  4.  Side lying
  • Ans-4. Side lying

59. Mr. Sharma developed features of depression after his divorce. Here divorce is considered as___________.

  1.  Precipitating factor
  2.  Perpetuating factor
  3.  Predisposing factor
  4.  Personality factor
  • Ans-1. Precipitating factor

60. A baby whose birth weight is 3 kg, what will be his required weight at the age of 4 years?

  1.  6 kg
  2. 12 kg
  3.  14 kg
  4.  16 kg
  • Ans-4. 16 kg

61. Which anti-tuberculosis drug cause poor vision and difficulty in color perception?

  1. Streptomycin
  2.  Ethambutol
  3.  Rifampicin
  4.  Pyrazinamide
  • Ans-2. Ethambutol

62. The act of rubbing an oil into the skin to produce a local effect is known as __________.

  1.  Injection
  2. Inhalation
  3.  Inunction
  4.  Infusion
  • Ans-3. Inunction

63. A 50-year-old man presents with sudden onset of dyspnea breathlessness and chest pain. Examination shows tachypnea, hypotension, cyanosis, jugular vein distension, tachycardia and low-grade fever. The most likely diagnosis is ______.

  1. Acute MI
  2.  Acute attack of bronchial asthma
  3. Stroke
  4.  Pulmonary Embolism
  • Ans-4. Pulmonary Embolism

64. While providing care to a patient with Hepatitis, the nursing officer should take special precautions to _____________.

  1.  Prevent droplet spread of infection
  2.  Use caution when bringing food for PT
  3.  Wear mask and gown before entering the room
  4.  Use gloves when removing the patients bed pan
  • Ans-4. Use gloves when removing the patients bed pan

65. The term Aphakia means?

  1.  Inflammation of lens
  2.  Absence of lens
  3.  Enhancement of lens
  4. Lens disease
  • Ans-2. Absence of lens

66. The uterine fundus height of a pregnant patient is at the level of the umbilicus, her pregnancy is about__________?

  1. 10 to 12 weeks
  2.  14 to 16 weeks
  3.  20 to 24 weeks
  4.  30 to 32 weeks
  • Ans-3. 20 to 24 weeks

67. As a nurse you are monitoring a patient in immediate postpartum period. You are checking TRP and BP every 15 minutes for first hour. Which value suggest you that there is an excessive blood loss?

  1. Increased pulse rate 90 – 102
  2.  An increase respiratory rate 18– 22
  3. Temperature 100.2°Fahrenheit
  4. None of these
  • Ans-1. Increased pulse rate 90 – 102

68. While assessing Mr. Gupta with Braden Scale, the score attained was 8 which indicates that the risk of developing pressure sore for Mr. Gupta is _________

  1. Mild
  2.  Moderate
  3.  High
  4. Very High
  • Ans-4. Very High

69. What is the name of the opening that connects two atria of fetal heart?

  1. Ductus arteriosus
  2. Ductus venosus
  3. Foremen ovale
  4.  Ligamentum teres
  • Ans-3. Foremen ovale

70. In which of the following genetic condition, Karyotype 47, XXY is seen?

  1. Down’s syndrome
  2.  Klinefelter’s syndrome
  3.  Edward’s syndrome
  4. Patau’s syndrome
  • Ans-2. Klinefelter’s syndrome

71. Which statement among the following is true as far as maturation of graafian follicle is concerned?

  1. Maturation is influenced by both FSH and LH
  2.  Maturation is only influenced by FSH
  3.  Maturation is only influenced by LH
  4.  Maturation is only influenced only by progesterone
  • Ans-1. Maturation is influenced by both FSH and LH

72. What immediate nursing intervention will you take in case of blood transfusion reaction?

  1.  Inform the physician
  2.  Inform the blood bank
  3.  Monitor vital signs
  4.  Stop the transfusion & monitor the vital signs
  • Ans-4. Stop the transfusion & monitor the vital signs

73. As a staff nurse you are caring a patient with Psoriasis. Salicylic acid is prescribed to the patient. Which finding indicates that presence of systemic toxicity from this medication?

  1. Respiration decreased
  2.  Tinnitus
  3. Constipation
  4.  Diarrhea
  • Ans-2. Tinnitus

74. Phlebostatic axis is the point at intersection of__________?

  1.  Mid-axillary line and line drawn through forth intercostal space
  2.  Anterior axillary line and sixth intercostal space
  3.  Posterior axillary line and fifth intercostal space
  4.  Anterior axillary line and sixth intercostal space
  • Ans-1. Mid-axillary line and line drawn through forth intercostal space

75. Name of the receptor on epidermis that transmit stimuli to the axon through a chemical synapse?

  1. Langerhans’s cells
  2.  Merkel cells
  3.  Woodzer cells
  4. Berger cells
  • Ans-2. Merkel cells

76. Administration of Mesna with a chemotherapy agent helps in ___________?

  1.  Favoring the destruction of cancer cells
  2. Protecting the cells
  3.  Preventing formation of uric cells
  4. Increasing production of WBC
  • Ans-2. Protecting the cells

77. Your patient complains of dry mouth with swallowing difficulty. Which among the following drugs can produce these side effects when administered in the above condition?

  1.  Dicyclomine
  2.  Pyrantel Pamoate
  3.  Griseofulvin
  4.  Naloxone
  • Ans-1. Dicyclomine

78. Uterine polarity is _____________.

  1. The neuromuscular disharmony between the two uterine segments throughout labour
  2. The neuro chemical disharmony between the two segments of the uterus throughout labour
  3. The neuro muscular harmony between the two uterine segments throughout labour
  4. The muscular disharmony between the two uterine segments during labour
  • Ans-3. The neuro muscular harmony between the two uterine segments throughout labour

79. Medical treatment of coronary artery disease includes which of the following procedure?

  1. Cardiac catheterization
  2.  Oral medication administration
  3. Coronary artery bypass grafting
  4. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
  • Ans-2. Oral medication administration

80. Which of the following causative organism responsible for Moniliasis?

  1.  Candida albicans
  2.  Tinea cruris
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4.  Gonococci
  • Ans-1. Candida albicans

81. A 30-year-old pregnant women is diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following anti tuberculosis drug should not be given?

  1. INH
  2.  Rifampicin
  3. Streptomycin
  4. Ethambutol
  • Ans-3. Streptomycin

82. A disorder of thought in which patient has a false and fixed belief that members of his family are trying to kill him is___________.

  1. Delusion of persecution
  2. Delusion of grandeur
  3. Nihilistic disorder
  4. Delusion of guilt

Ans-1. Delusion of persecution

83. Kernicterus, which may occur as a complication of jaundice is a pathological condition of?

  1. Liver
  2. Brain
  3. Kidney
  4. Heart
  • Ans-2. Brain

84. Munson’s sign is a characteristic of advanced cases of?

  1.  Keratoconus
  2.  Cataract
  3.  Strabismus
  4.  Diabetic Retinopathy
  • Ans-1. Keratoconus

85. Rose Bengal test is used in the diagnosis of?

  1.  Brucellosis
  2.  Byssinosis
  3.  Whooping cough
  4.  Bronchiectasis
  • Ans-1. Brucellosis

86. Which is the following neurotransmitters is deficient in depression?

  1.  Only Serotonin
  2.  Only 5 HT
  3. GABA
  4.  Both option a & b
  • Ans-4. Both option a & b

87. A patient receiving IV fluids develops warm tenderness, erythema and pain at the site. The nurse suspect which of the following?

  1. Fluid overload
  2.  Sepsis
  3.  Phlebitis
  4.  Infiltration
  • Ans-3. Phlebitis

88. Station in obstetric pelvis is related to_______?

  1.  Iliac spine
  2.  Ischial spine
  3.  Coccyx
  4. Ileum spine
  • Ans-2. Ischial spine

89. Inflammation of tissues surrounding the nail is known as?

  1. Clubbing
  2.  Koilonychia
  3.  Paronychia
  4. Onycholysis
  • Ans-3. Paronychia

90. Name the neurological disorder characterized by the loss of the ability to execute or carry out skilled movements and gestures, despite having the desire and the physical ability to perform them?

  1.  Anhedonia
  2.  Apraxia
  3. Apathy
  4.  Amnesia
  • Ans-2. Apraxia

91. The heat regulatory centre of the body is located at?

  1.  Medulla oblongata
  2. Thalamus
  3.  Limbic system
  4. Hypothalamus
  • Ans-4. Hypothalamus

92. The nurse administer ear drop to a 7-year-old child. How does the nurse pull the patient’s ear?

  1. Outward
  2.  Backward
  3.  Upward and Backward
  4.  Backward and Downward
  • Ans-3. Upward and Backward

93. Which of the following is not an isotonic fluid?

  1.  0.9%
  2.  RL
  3.  Dextrose 5% in water
  4.  Dextrose 5% in normal saline
  • Ans-4. Dextrose 5% in normal saline

94. Meniere’s disease is related to________________.

  1.  Eye
  2.  Ear
  3.  Respiratory system
  4.  Digestive system
  • Ans-2. Ear

95. The space between arachnoid & pia matter is called___________?

  1.  Epidural
  2.  Subdural
  3.  Subarachnoid
  4.  Extradural
  • Ans-3. Subarachnoid

96. Which assessment indicates the nurse about development of cardiogenic shock in M.I. patient in I.C.U.?

  1. Bradycardia
  2.  Increased blood pressure
  3.  Oliguria
  4. Warm & flushed skin
  • Ans-3. Oliguria

97. According to Freud, which component of personality operates according to the reality principle?

  1.  ID
  2. Ego
  3.  Super ego
  4.  Trust
  • Ans-2. Ego

98. Which is not a cause of APH?

  1.  Placenta previa
  2.  Cord presentation
  3.  Abruptio placentae
  4. Rupture of uterus
  • Ans-2. Cord presentation

99. Cord clamping is delayed by 1-3 minutes in neonates because_________?

  1. Prevents anemia in women
  2. Placenta separates easily
  3.  Prevents jaundice in neonate
  4.  Neonate gets cord blood
  • Ans-4. Neonate gets cord blood

100. Which of the following causative organism responsible for syphilis?

  1. Human immune deficiency virus
  2.  Sarcoptes scabi
  3.  Neisseria gonorrhea
  4. Treponema pallidum
  • Ans-4. Treponema pallidum

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