RUHS MSc Nursing 2022 Entrance Examination
Q 1. The average life span of platelets is-
- A 3-5 Days
- B 7- 10 Days
- C 15-16 Days
- D 17-20 Days
ANS-B 7- 10 Days
Q.2 A surfactant is a combination of-
- A Phospholipids, Proteins, Carbohydrates and Several ions
- B Lipids, Carbohydrates, Proteins and Vitamins
- C Proteins, Carbohydrates, Hormones and Fluid
- D Carbohydrates, Lipids, Proteins and Fluid
Ans-A ,Phospholipids, Proteins, Carbohydrates and Several ions
Q.3 BIOT's breathing, seen in the following condition is-
- A Congenital heart diseases
- B Uremia
- C Head Injury
- D Meningitis
Ans-D Meningitis
Q.4 Which of the following tissues is the hardest part in the human body?
- A Dentin
- B Enamel
- C Pulb
- D Periodontium
Ans-B Enamel
Q.5 The principle of plasma protein responsible for exerting colloidal osmotic pressure is-
- A Haemoglobin
- B C-reactive protein
- C Albumin
- D Hepatoglobin
Ans-C Albumin
Q.6 Which of the following classifications of carbohydrates produces glycosidic linkage?
- A.Mono Saccharides
- B Di Saccharides
- C Poly Saccharides
- D Oligo Saccharides
Ans-B Di Saccharides
Q.7 The following gram-staining, gram-positive organisms take up -------colour
- A Pink
- B Purple
- C Yellow
- D Green
Ans-B Purple
Q.8 Universal safety precautions are a set of guidelines designed to protect the-
- A Patients
- B Patient's Relatives
- C Patient's Samples
- D Health Care Worker
Ans-D Health Care Worker
Q 9.Chronic decompression sickness is referred to as
- A Caisson disease
- B Air embolism
- C Pneumothorax
- D Patau syndrome
Ans-A Caisson disease
Q.10 The ectopic rest of a normal tissue is called-
- A Hamartoma
- B Choristoma
- C Teratoma
- D Sarcoma
Ans-B Choristoma
Q.11 The nurse protects the patient's human and legal rights. Here, the nurse possesses the role of
- A Advocate
- B Care Giver
- C Educator
- D Communicator
Ans-A Advocate
Q.12 The level of prevention that includes early diagnosis and prompt treatment is -
- A. Primary
- B Secondary
- C Health Promotion
- D Tertiary
Ans-B Secondary
Q.13 Positioning to minimise the effects of pressure ulcers is-
- A Collaborative Intervention
- B Nurse Initiated Intervention
- C Physician Initiated Intervention
- D Physician And Nurse Intervention
Ans-B Nurse Initiated Intervention
Q.14 The founder of Modern Nursing is-
- A Clara Barton
- B Florence Nightingale
- C Mary Mahoney
- D Dorthea Dix
Ans-B Florence Nightingale
Q.15 Hospital-acquired infection is also known as
- A Cross infection
- B Direct infection
- C Indirect infection
- D Nosocomial infection
Ans-D Nosocomial infection
Q 16 The other name for diaphoresis is-
- A Fainting
- B High fever
- C Profuse sweating
- D Diarhoea
Ans-C Profuse sweating
Q 17 Which of the following areas is the most common area for pressure ulcers?
- A Sacrum
- B Nose
- C Hand
- D Humerus
Ans-A Sacrum
Q.18 Inflammation of the tongue is called-
- A Stomatitis
- B Glossitis
- C Gingivitis
- D Cheilosis
Ans-B Glossitis
Q 19. When auscultating the chest, the continuous musical sound heard on expiration is called -
- A Crackles
- B Wheeze
- C Crepitation
- D Rhonchi
Ans-B Wheeze
Q.20 In which of the following positions does the patient lie flat on the abdomen with the head turned to one side?
- A Supine
- B Prone
- C Fowler's
- D Sims
Ans-B Prone
Q. 21 Edema is the result of fluid collection in-
- A Intracellular space
- B Lymphatic area
- C Interstitial space
- D Intra vascular space
Ans-C Interstitial space
Q.22 The following are the characteristics of the nursing process, EXCEPT-
- A Systematic approach
- B Decision making
- C Planning the care
- D Maintaining the care
Ans-D Maintaining the care
Q. 23 The angle of insertion for intradermal injection is-
- A 45o
- B 15o
- C 90o
- D 105o
Ans-B 15o
Q 24 The temperature regulating centre is
- A Hypothalamus
- B Midbrain
- C Medulla oblongata
- D Ponsveroli
Ans-C Medulla oblongata
Q 25 The daily requirement of iron is needed for postmenopausal women-
- A 10 mgs
- B 20 mgs
- C 30 mgs
- D 60 mgs
Ans-A 10 mgs
Q.26 Which of the following components are considered micro nutrients?
- A Vitamins & minerals
- B Carbohydrates & fat
- C Protein & water
- D Carbohydrates & water
Ans-A Vitamins & minerals
Q. 27 The following are common disaccharides, EXCEPT:
- A Maltose
- B Sucrose
- C Glucose
- D Lactose
Ans-C Glucose
Q 28 An example of essential fatty acids is -
- A Palmitic acid & Oleic acid
- B Linoleic acid & Alpha linolenic acid
- C Butyric acid & Palmitic acid
- D Oleic acid & Palmitic acid
Ans-B Linoleic acid & Alpha linolenic acid
Q.29 Vitamin E is otherwise known as-
- A Anti sterility vitamin
- B Primary Anti oxident vitamin
- C. Anti aging vitamin
- D Water soluble vitamin
Ans-A Anti sterility vitamin
Q.30 Which one of the following methods is used to diagnose and solve social problems?
- A Case Study
- B Social Survey
- C Opinion Poll
- D Observation
Ans-B Social Survey
Q.31 Social telesis is-
- A Use of natural and social forces
- B Use of interpret social problems
- C Comprehensive approach
- D Interdisciplinary approach
Ans-A Use of natural and social forces
Q 32 The following are elements of society, EXCEPT:
- A Mutual interaction of the individual
- B A pattern of the system
- C Like mindedness
- D Composed of the people
Ans-D Composed of the people
Q. 33 Social norms is a foundation of
- A Social Group
- B Cultural Norms
- C Social Structure
- D Social Importance
Ans-C Social Structure
Q.34 Which of the following is NOT a style or method of observation used in psychology?
- A Introspection
- B Formal
- C Informal
- D Participant
Ans-A Introspection
Q.35 Neurons carry messages through
- A Neurotransmitte
- B Synapses
- C Axon
- D Dendrite
Ans-B Synapses
Q. 36 Paying attention to a particular stimulus is called-
- A Mental state
- B Training
- C Habit
- D Physical state
Ans C Habit
Q. 37 A mental image denotes a general idea about things, persons, or events is called-
- A Problem solving
- B Motor learning
- C Verbal learning
- D Concept learning
Ans D Concept learnin
Q. 38 Systemic absorption of mydriatics in elderly patients can be limited by-
- A Fundus examination
- B Lesser concentration of medication
- C Proper administration
- D Punctual occlusion
Ans-D Punctual occlusion
Q. 39 The nurse identifies the detaching retina as manifested by the patient as-
- A Peripheral loss of vision
- B Light flashes
- C Central loss of vision
- D Glare
Ans-B Light flashes
Q. 40 Which of the following factors provides a good medium for the growth of microorganisms in the external ear?
- A Warm dark environment
- B Direct exposure to external environment
- C Moist surface
- D Frequent cold attack
Ans-A Warm dark environment
Q. 41 The nurse checks the audiogram report of the patient with ottitis media at 25 db. She explains the report to the patient as
- A Normal hearing
- B Slight hearing loss
- C Mild impairment
- D Moderate impairment
Ans-B Slight hearing loss
Q. 42 The nurse teaches the patient to use physiologic monitoring equipment and trains the patient to relax the muscles and increase the peripheral blood flow for symptomatic relief from headache. The therapy taught by the nurse is-
- A Biofeedback
- B Relaxation
- C Acupuncture
- D Cognitive-behavioral
Ans-A Biofeedback
Q. 43 A patient develops a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions should be avoided by the nurse?
- A Perform suctioning
- B Establish IV access
- C Loosen tight clothing
- D Insert airway between clenched teeth
Ans-D Insert airway between clenched teeth
Q. 44 Which is a priority nursing intervention for a patient with the acute phase of rheumatic fever?
- A Performance of active range of motion exercises
- B Encourage more fluid intake
- C Follow the pain management
- D Administer antibiotics as per order
Ans- D Administer antibiotics as per order
Q. 45 When is the best time for a premenopausal woman to perform a breast selfexamination?
- A Seven days after menstruation
- B Seven days before menstruation
- C During menstruation
- D Five days before menstruation
Ans- A Seven days after menstruation
Q. 46 The most common site for an ectopic pregnancy is-
- A Ovary
- B Abdomen
- C Fallopian tube
- D Cervix
Ans-C Fallopian tube
Q. 47 The patient assessment includes the following types of approaches, EXCEPT-
- A Emergency
- B Focused
- C Comprehensive
- D Diagnosis
Ans-D Diagnosis
Q.48 The nurse assessed the patient with fourth-degree burns and identified that she or he was insensitive to pain and pressure. Which of the following reasons rationalises a lack of pain?
- A Nerve destruction
- B Hyperemia
- C Loss of epidermis
- D Blister formation
Ans-A Nerve destruction
Q. 49 Which of the following is an example of colloidal solution?
- A Albumin
- B Ringer lactate
- C 0.9% Normal saline
- D 5%Dextrose
Ans- A Albumin
Q. 50 Which of the following chemotherapy drug is administered via intravenous route?
- A Vincristine
- B Cyclophosphamide
- C Bleomycin
- D Radioisotope
Ans-A Vincristine
Q. 51 The nursing measure for an altered taste sensation in a cancer patient is-
- A Avoid likes and dislikes choice for food
- B Additional seasoning agent
- C Experiment varied spices
- D Provide salty food
Ans- C Experiment varied spices
Q. 52 As an Emergency Department nurse, a patient admitted with bleach poisoning should be prevented from-
- A Vomiting and aspiration
- B Gastric lavage
- C Dilution with water and milk
- D Sample collection
Ans-A Vomiting and aspiration
Q. 53 Which of the following interventions can be provided for a trauma patient based on a secondary survey-
- A Insertion of airway
- B BVM ventilation
- C Provide warm blankets
- D Fluid resuscitation
Ans-C Provide warm blankets
Q. 54 Which type of elder abuse does "threatening behavior" belong to?
- A Psychological neglect
- B Psychological abuse
- C Physical neglect
- D Physical abuse
Ans-B Psychological abuse
Q. 55 An ageing theory explaining the faulty synthesis of DNA, RNA, or both-
- A Error
- B Free radical
- C Cross-link
- D Programmed
Ans-A Error
Q. 56 The critical care nurse controls the mechanical ventilator's tidal volume, which ranges from-
- A 5-15ml/kg
- B 15-25ml/kg
- C 25-35ml/kg
- D 35-45ml/kg
Ans-A 5-15ml/kg
Q. 57 A low central venous pressure indicates-
- A Increased preload
- B Hypervolemia
- C Right ventricular failure
- D Hypovolemia
Ans-D Hypovolemia
Q. 58 Which of the following actions is to be performed by the nurse after the restoration of spontaneous ventilation in basic life support?
- A Continue chest compression
- B Recovery position
- C Shift to Hospital
- D Intubation
Ans-B Recovery position
Q. 59 The occupational lung disease caused by inhalation of coal-
- A Pneumoconioses
- B Silicosis
- C Byssinosis
- D Siderosis
Ans-A Pneumoconioses
Q.60 The type of vaginal bleeding seen in vesicular mole-
- A White currant in red currant juice
- B White currant juice
- C Red currant juice
- D Red currant in white currant juice
Ans-A White currant in red currant juice
Q. 61 The Function of the Cephalic Curve in Obstetric Forceps-
- A To support the perineum
- B To fit on the axis of the birth canal
- C To grasp the foetal head
- D To prevent lacerations on foetal head
Ans-C To grasp the foetal head
Q. 62 The amount of pressure created at the beginning of the ventouse application-
- A 0.2 kg/cm2
- B 0.4 kg/cm2
- C 0.6 kg/cm2
- D 0.8 kg/cm2
Ans- A 0.2 kg/cm2
Q. 63 A patient with a peptic ulcer should be advised to-
- A Acid ash diet
- B Kempher rice diet
- C Bland diet
- D Low fat diet
Ans-C Bland diet
Q. 64 The classic triad of ectopic pregnancy symptoms are as follows:-
- A Amenorrhoea ,Abdominal pain & Vomiting
- B Amenorrhoea ,Abdominal pain & Abnormal vaginal bleeding
- C Amenorrhoea ,Abdominal pain & Headache
- D Amenorrhoea ,Abdominal pain ,Vomiting & Headache
Ans-B Amenorrhoea ,Abdominal pain & Abnormal vaginal bleeding
Q. 65 The extra calorie requirement for a mother when breast-feeding is-
- A 300 kcal
- B 600 kcal
- C 200 kcal
- D 1000 kcal
Ans- B 600 kcal
Q. 66 Which nursing intervention would be appropriate initially, when a midwife assessing the uterine fundus of a mother in the immediate postpartum period notes that the uterus feels soft and boggy?
- A Push on the uterus to assist in expressing clots
- B Elevate the mother's legs
- C Massage the fundus until it is firm
- D Encourage the mother to void
Ans- C Massage the fundus until it is firm
Q. 67 Labor is said to be precipitated when it terminates in-
- A Less than one hour of onset
- B Less than two hour of onset
- C Less than four hour of onset
- D Less than six hour of onset
Ans- B Less than two hour of onset
Q.68 A midwife is monitoring a mother who was admitted to the delivery unit about 5 hours ago. She notes a cervical dilatation of 5 cm and contractions are occurring every 5 minutes lasting between 50 and 55 seconds. The mother is in what phase of labour?
- A Latent phase
- B Active phase
- C Transition phase
- D Second stage of labour
Ans- B Active phase
Q.69 Which of the following is the most common cause of maternal mortality?
- A Hemorrhage
- B Anemia
- C Abortion
- D Sepsis
Ans- A Hemorrhage
Q. 70 The alteration in the shape of fetal head while coming through the resistance birth passage during labour is- termed as-
- A Crowning
- B Caput succedaneum
- C Moulding
- D Presentation
Ans- C Moulding
Q. 71 An antidote for the toxicity of magnesium sulphate is-
- A Acetylcysteine
- B Protamine sulphate
- C Naloxone
- D Calcium gluconate
Ans-D Calcium gluconate
Q. 72 The associative play is common in-
- A Infancy
- B Toddler period
- C Preschool age
- D School age
Ans- C Preschool age
Q. 73 The mode of administration of surfactant is-
- A Subcutaneous
- B Intravenous
- C Intrathecal
- D Endotracheal
Ans- D Endotracheal
Q. 74 Ice collar was the recommended post-operative nursing intervention in case of
- A Tracheostomy
- B Thyroidectomy
- C Parathyroidectomy
- D Tonsillectomy
Ans-C Parathyroidectomy
Q. 75 The role of Prostaglandin E in the tetralogy of fallot to-
- A Minimize the blood flow to pulmonary circulation
- B Dilate the ductus arteriosus
- C Constrict the ductus arteriosus
- D Maximize the blood flow to Aorta
Ans- B Dilate the ductus arteriosus
Q. 76 A "DO NOT PALPATE ABDOMEN" board is hanged for the child diagnosed with-
- A Intussusception
- B Megacolon
- C Wilms tumor
- D Umbilical hernia
Ans-C Wilms tumor
Q. 77 Percussing the head by the nurse to hear crackpot sound is to detect the
- A Kernig sign
- B Brudzinski sign
- C Scarf sign
- D Macewen sign
Ans- D Macewen sign
Q. 78 The differences in the play between boys and girls become more marked at the stage of-
- A Late preschooler
- B Early School
- C Late school
- D Early adolescent
Ans- C Late school
Q. 79 In physiological jaundice, serum bilirubin does not exceed-
- A 5mg
- B 10mg
- C 15mg
- D 20mg
Ans- D 20mg
Q.80 Child with multiple, non-accidental trauma gives away to suspect-
- A Osteomyelitis
- B Septic arthritis
- C Osteogenesis Imperfecta
- D Perthes disease
Ans- C Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Q. 81 The most reliable and standardised test to diagnose rheumatic fever is-
- A Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
- B Electrocardiogram
- C C- Reactive protein
- D Antistreptolysin O
Ans- D Antistreptolysin O
Q. 82 Which of the following types of crisis is seen in the developmental period of adolescence?
- A Maturational
- B Situational
- C Social
- D External
Ans-A Maturational
Q. 83 Hallucination influences the patient to take some specific action against others is known as-
- A. Auditory Hallucination
- B Visual Hallucination
- C Tactile Hallucination
- D Command Hallucination
Ans- D Command Hallucination
Q. 84 A dexamethasone suppression test is used to diagnose-
- A Anxiety
- B Depression
- C Mania
- D Schizophrenia
Ans- B Depression
Q. 85 The person with anorexia nervosa uses inappropriate behavior such as fasting and excessive exercise are considered to be-
- A Purging
- B Nonpurging
- C Binge
- D Bulimia
Ans- B Nonpurging
Q. 86 The protection of children from sexual offences (POCSO) Act was passed to protect children against-
- A Paraphilia
- B Zoophilia
- C Pedophilia
- D Voyeurism
Ans- C Pedophilia
Q.87 Cluster "A" personality disorders are referred to as-
- A Dramatic
- B Odd
- C Anxious
- D Normal
Ans- B Odd
Q. 88 Common signs of depression are all, EXCEPT-
- A Increased psychomotor activity
- B Apathy
- C Sadness
- D Hopelessness
Ans-A Increased psychomotor activity
Q. 89 Which of the following is a barrier to therapeutic communication?
- A Focusing
- B Giving advice
- C Restating
- D Listening
Ans-B Giving advice
Q. 90 The hallucination occurring in the semiconscious state before awakening is called as-
- A Hypnopompic
- B Pseudohallucinations
- C Hypnogogic
- D Extracampine
Ans-A Hypnopompic
Q. 91 The term "flight of ideas" refers to-
- A Use of rhyming words
- B Repetition of word heard
- C New words invented by patient
- D Pattern of rapid transition from topic to topic
Ans- D Pattern of rapid transition from topic to topic
Q. 92 Ergonomics means-
- A Fitting the job to the worker
- B Industrial health
- C Industrial legislation
- D Prevention of disease in work place
Ans-A Fitting the job to the worker
Q. 93 The population covered by one sub-centre is-
- A 1000
- B 2000
- C 5000
- D 7000
Ans- C 5000
Q. 94 A cold chain should be maintained to preserve-
- A Vaccines
- B Ampoules
- C Costly injections
- D Blood products
Ans- A Vaccines
Q. 95 The continuous scrutiny of the factors that determine the occurrence and distribution of disease is-
- A Monitoring
- B Surveillance
- C Prevention
- D Evaluation
Ans- B Surveillance
Q.96 World Health Day is celebrated every year on-
- A 7th February
- B 7th June
- C 7th April
- D 7th August
Ans-C 7th April
Q. 97 Siderosis is an occupational disease that is caused by-
- A Silica
- B Cotton dust
- C Asbestos
- D Iron
Ans- D Iron
Q. 98 Personal serving at the community level mainly focuses on-
- A Preventive
- B Curative
- C Rehabilitative
- D Laboratory services
Ans- A Preventive
Q. 99 A pap smear is done to rule out-
- A Cancer Lung
- B Cancer Breast
- C Cancer Cervix
- D Cancer Stomach
Ans- C Cancer Cervix
Q. 100 The volume reduction method of waste disposal is-
- A Trench method
- B Ramp method
- C Area method
- D Incineration method
Ans- D Incineration method
Q. 101 The principal unit of administration in India is the-
- A District
- B State
- C Taluk
- D Panchayat Raj
Ans- A District
Q. 102 In the year, the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act was passed.-
- A 1944
- B 1954
- C 1964
- D 1974
Ans- B 1954
Q. 103 Hind Kusht Nivaran Sangh is a programme related to the relief of-
- A Diabetes
- B Tuberculosis
- C Cancer
- D Leprosy
Ans-D Leprosy
Q. 104 The main strategy of THE Revised National Tuberculosis Control Program is-
- A Establishment of district TB centre
- B Involvement of NGO?s
- C DOTS
- D Vaccine for newborn and infants
Ans- B Involvement of NGO?s
Q. 105 The committee which started the multipurpose health worker's training programme was-
- A Chadah committee
- B Kartar Singh committee
- C Bhore committee
- D Mukerji committee
Ans- B Kartar Singh committee
Q. 106 Nurses can help patients in an unknown area of Johari Window by creating an environment that encourages
- A Self-discovery
- B Self -esteem
- C Self-concept
- D Self - confidence
Ans- A Self-discovery
Q.107 The following does NOT belong to the elements of team work.
- A Interdependence
- B Empowerment
- C Mutual accountability
- D Peer pressure
Ans-D Peer pressure
Q. 108 The "Directive counselling approach" is also known as-
- A Eclectic counselling
- B Prescriptive counselling
- C Patient centered counselling
- D Permissive counselling
Ans-B Prescriptive counselling
Q. 109 The philosophy that depicts the teacher's role as a catalyst to guide the students in the clinical area is-
- A Realism
- B Naturalism
- C Idealism
- D Pragmatism
Ans-D Pragmatism
Q. 110 The domains of the lecture method consist of-
- A Content, High order and Introduction
- B Objectives, Activities and Nature of content
- C Content, High order and Activities
- D Nature of content, Objectives and Introduction
Ans- B Objectives, Activities and Nature of content
Q. 111 Defamation is an -
- A Intentional tort
- B Issues in patient care
- C Assault
- D Invasion of personal privacy
Ans- A Intentional tort
Q.112 In which type of leadership,does a leader develop a relationship with followers to exchange ideas?
- A Transactional
- B Transformational
- C Directive
- D Participative
Ans- A Transactional
Q. 113 The primary objective of ward management is to-
- A Analyze the personal achievement of the team members
- B Improve quality patient care
- C Identify patient's needs and problems
- D Conduct rounds to diagnose the deficiencies
Ans- B Improve quality patient care
Q. 114 At what stage of conflict management do both parties listen to each other and understand each other's views?
- A Assessment
- B Analysis
- C Acknowledgement
- D Attitude
Ans-C Acknowledgement
Q. 115 Who was the first to introduce the concept of management by objectives?
- A Hernold Weihrichs
- B George Terry
- C Henry Foyal
- D Peter Drucker
Ans-D Peter Drucker
Q. 116 Ex-post facto studies are also called-
- A Longitudinal
- B Descriptive
- C Correlation
- D Exploratory
Ans- C Correlation
Q. 117 "Lived experiences of nurses who are caring for patients with the diagnosis COVID-19" Which of the following types of qualitative research is mentioned in the above mentioned statement?
- A Phenomenological
- B Ethnographic
- C Case Study
- D Historical
Ans-A Phenomenological
Q.118 The power analysis is used to estimate-
- A Level of Significance
- B Internal Validity
- C Reliability
- D Sample Size
Ans-D Sample Size
Q. 119 Cluster sampling is otherwise known as-
- A Quota Sampling
- B Network Sampling
- C Multistage Sampling
- D Systematic Sampling
Ans- C Multistage Sampling
Q. 120 Which of the following is NOT a type of reliability?
- A Split-half
- B Content
- C Internal Consistency
- D Test-Retest
Ans-B Content